SY0-501 : CompTIA Security+ Certification​​ : Part 01

  1. DRAG DROP

    A security administrator wants to implement strong security on the company smart phones and terminal servers located in the data center.

    INSTRUCTIONS

    Drag and drop the applicable controls to each asset type. Controls can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

    If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

    SY0-501 Part 01 Q01 001 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q01 001 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q01 001 Answer
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q01 001 Answer
  2. HOTSPOT

    Select the appropriate attack from each drop down list to label the corresponding illustrated attack.

    Instructions: Attacks may only be used once, and will disappear from drop down list if selected. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

    SY0-501 Part 01 Q02 002 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q02 002 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q02 002 Answer
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q02 002 Answer

    Explanation:
    1: Spear phishing is an e-mail spoofing fraud attempt that targets a specific organization, seeking unauthorized access to confidential data. As with the e-mail messages used in regular phishing expeditions, spear phishing messages appear to come from a trusted source. Phishing messages usually appear to come from a large and well-known company or Web site with a broad membership base, such as eBay or PayPal. In the case of spear phishing, however, the apparent source of the e-mail is likely to be an individual within the recipient’s own company and generally someone in a position of authority.

    2: The Hoax in this question is designed to make people believe that the fake AV (anti- virus) software is genuine.

    3: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit.

    4: Email spam, also referred to as junk email, is unsolicited messages sent in bulk by email (spamming).

    5: Similar in nature to e-mail phishing, pharming seeks to obtain personal or private (usually financial related) information through domain spoofing. Rather than being spammed with malicious and mischievous e-mail requests for you to visit spoof Web sites which appear legitimate, pharming ‘poisons’ a DNS server by infusing false information into the DNS server, resulting in a user’s request being redirected elsewhere. Your browser, however will show you are at the correct Web site, which makes pharming a bit more serious and more difficult to detect. Phishing attempts to scam people one at a time with an e-mail while pharming allows the scammers to target large groups of people at one time through domain spoofing.

  3. DRAG DROP

    You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company.

    INSTRUCTIONS

    Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan.

    All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter.

    If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

    SY0-501 Part 01 Q03 003 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q03 003 Question
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q03 003 Answer
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q03 003 Answer

    Explanation:
    Cable locks – Adding a cable lock between a laptop and a desk prevents someone from picking it up and walking away
    Proximity badge + reader
    Safe is a hardware/physical security measure
    Mantrap can be used to control access to sensitive areas.
    CCTV can be used as video surveillance.
    Biometric reader can be used to control and prevent unauthorized access.
    Locking cabinets can be used to protect backup media, documentation and other physical artefacts.
  4. Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?

    • CA public key
    • Server private key
    • CSR
    • OID
  5. A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

    • tracert
    • netstat
    • ping
    • nslookup
  6. Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?

    • Shibboleth
    • RADIUS federation
    • SAML
    • OAuth
    • OpenID connect
  7. Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?

    • Sustainability
    • Homogeneity
    • Resiliency
    • Configurability
  8. In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

    • Elasticity
    • Scalability
    • High availability
    • Redundancy
    Explanation:

    Elasticity is defined as “the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by provisioning and de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each point in time the available resources match the current demand as closely as possible”.

  9. A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the following certificate formats should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format?

    • PFX
    • PEM
    • DER
    • CER
  10. Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?

    • DDoS
    • Trojan
    • MITM
    • Rootkit
  11. A security analyst is hardening a server with the directory services role installed. The analyst must ensure LDAP traffic cannot be monitored or sniffed and maintains compatibility with LDAP clients. Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

    • Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA.
    • Install and configure an SSH tunnel on the LDAP server.
    • Ensure port 389 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
    • Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
    • Remote the LDAP directory service role from the server.
  12. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company’s proprietary information to gain a market edge and reduce time to market?

    • Competitor
    • Hacktivist
    • Insider
    • Organized crime.
  13. A penetration tester is crawling a target website that is available to the public. Which of the following represents the actions the penetration tester is performing?

    • URL hijacking
    • Reconnaissance
    • White box testing
    • Escalation of privilege
  14. Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Choose two.)

    • Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
    • Rainbow tables must include precomputed hashes.
    • Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
    • Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
    • Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.
  15. Which of the following best describes routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?

    • Error handling to protect against program exploitation
    • Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks.
    • Input validation to protect against SQL injection.
    • Padding to protect against string buffer overflows.
  16. A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all traffic to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modern FTP client software.

    The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

    • Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
    • Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
    • Use explicit FTPS for connections.
    • Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.
  17. Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their customers to download over the Internet?

    • The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.
    • The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch.
    • The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value.
    • The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.
  18. Refer to the following code:

    SY0-501 Part 01 Q18 004
    SY0-501 Part 01 Q18 004

    Which of the following vulnerabilities would occur if this is executed?

    • Page exception
    • Pointer deference
    • NullPointerException
    • Missing null check
  19. Multiple employees receive an email with a malicious attachment that begins to encrypt their hard drives and mapped shares on their devices when it is opened. The network and security teams perform the following actions:

    – Shut down all network shares.
    – Run an email search identifying all employees who received the malicious message.
    – Reimage all devices belonging to users who opened the attachment.

    Next, the teams want to re-enable the network shares. Which of the following BEST describes this phase of the incident response process?

    • Eradication
    • Containment
    • Recovery
    • Lessons learned
  20. An organization has determined it can tolerate a maximum of three hours of downtime. Which of the following has been specified?

    • RTO
    • RPO
    • MTBF
    • MTTR
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