Last Updated on July 10, 2021 by InfraExam

SY0-501 : CompTIA Security+ Certification​​ : Part 06

  1. Which of the following must be intact for evidence to be admissible in court?

    • Chain of custody
    • Order of volatility
    • Legal hold
    • Preservation
  2. A vulnerability scanner that uses its running service’s access level to better assess vulnerabilities across multiple assets within an organization is performing a:

    • Credentialed scan.
    • Non-intrusive scan.
    • Privilege escalation test.
    • Passive scan.
  3. Which of the following cryptography algorithms will produce a fixed-length, irreversible output?

    • AES
    • 3DES
    • RSA
    • MD5
  4. A technician suspects that a system has been compromised. The technician reviews the following log entry:

    WARNING- hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\user32.dll
    WARNING- hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll

    Based solely ono the above information, which of the following types of malware is MOST likely installed on the system?

    • Rootkit
    • Ransomware
    • Trojan
    • Backdoor
  5. A new firewall has been places into service at an organization. However, a configuration has not been entered on the firewall. Employees on the network segment covered by the new firewall report they are unable to access the network. Which of the following steps should be completed to BEST resolve the issue?

    • The firewall should be configured to prevent user traffic form matching the implicit deny rule.
    • The firewall should be configured with access lists to allow inbound and outbound traffic.
    • The firewall should be configured with port security to allow traffic.
    • The firewall should be configured to include an explicit deny rule.
  6. A security analyst is testing both Windows and Linux systems for unauthorized DNS zone transfers within a LAN on from Which of the following commands should the security analyst use? (Choose two.)

    • SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 018
      SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 018
    • SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 019
      SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 019
    • dig –axfr
    • ipconfig /flushDNS
    • SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 020
      SY0-501 Part 06 Q06 020
    • dig
  7. Which of the following are the MAIN reasons why a systems administrator would install security patches in a staging environment before the patches are applied to the production server? (Choose two.)

    • To prevent server availability issues
    • To verify the appropriate patch is being installed
    • To generate a new baseline hash after patching
    • To allow users to test functionality
    • To ensure users are trained on new functionality
  8. A Chief Information Officer (CIO) drafts an agreement between the organization and its employees. The agreement outlines ramifications for releasing information without consent and/or approvals. Which of the following BEST describes this type of agreement?

    • ISA
    • NDA
    • MOU
    • SLA
  9. Which of the following would meet the requirements for multifactor authentication?

    • Username, PIN, and employee ID number
    • Fingerprint and password
    • Smart card and hardware token
    • Voice recognition and retina scan
  10. A manager suspects that an IT employee with elevated database access may be knowingly modifying financial transactions for the benefit of a competitor. Which of the following practices should the manager implement to validate the concern?

    • Separation of duties
    • Mandatory vacations
    • Background checks
    • Security awareness training
  11. A penetration tester finds that a company’s login credentials for the email client were being sent in clear text. Which of the following should be done to provide encrypted logins to the email server?

    • Enable IPSec and configure SMTP.
    • Enable SSH and LDAP credentials.
    • Enable MIME services and POP3.
    • Enable an SSL certificate for IMAP services.
  12. Before an infection was detected, several of the infected devices attempted to access a URL that was similar to the company name but with two letters transposed. Which of the following BEST describes the attack vector used to infect the devices?

    • Cross-site scripting
    • DNS poisoning
    • Typo squatting
    • URL hijacking
  13. A systems administrator is reviewing the following information from a compromised server:

    SY0-501 Part 06 Q13 021
    SY0-501 Part 06 Q13 021

    Given the above information, which of the following processes was MOST likely exploited via a remote buffer overflow attack?

    • Apache
    • LSASS
    • MySQL
    • TFTP
  14. Joe, a security administrator, needs to extend the organization’s remote access functionality to be used by staff while travelling. Joe needs to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VOIP services. Which of the following represents the BEST access technology for Joe to use?

    • RADIUS
    • TACACS+
    • Diameter
    • Kerberos
  15. The availability of a system has been labeled as the highest priority. Which of the following should be focused on the MOST to ensure the objective?

    • Authentication
    • HVAC
    • Full-disk encryption
    • File integrity checking
  16. As part of the SDLC, a third party is hired to perform a penetration test. The third party will have access to the source code, integration tests, and network diagrams. Which of the following BEST describes the assessment being performed?

    • Black box
    • Regression
    • White box
    • Fuzzing
  17. A dumpster diver recovers several hard drives from a company and is able to obtain confidential data from one of the hard drives. The company then discovers its information is posted online. Which of the following methods would have MOST likely prevented the data from being exposed?

    • Removing the hard drive from its enclosure
    • Using software to repeatedly rewrite over the disk space
    • Using Blowfish encryption on the hard drives
    • Using magnetic fields to erase the data
  18. Which of the following are methods to implement HA in a web application server environment? (Choose two.)

    • Load balancers
    • Application layer firewalls
    • Reverse proxies
    • VPN concentrators
    • Routers
  19. An application developer is designing an application involving secure transports from one service to another that will pass over port 80 for a request.

    Which of the following secure protocols is the developer MOST likely to use?

    • FTPS
    • SFTP
    • SSL
    • LDAPS
    • SSH
  20. Which of the following precautions MINIMIZES the risk from network attacks directed at multifunction printers, as well as the impact on functionality at the same time?

    • Isolating the systems using VLANs
    • Installing a software-based IPS on all devices
    • Enabling full disk encryption
    • Implementing a unique user PIN access functions