CCSP : Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) : Part 19

  1. Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using cloud services. However, the committee is concerned with getting locked into a single cloud provider and has flagged the ability to easily move between cloud providers as a top priority. It also wants to save costs by reusing components.

    Which cross-cutting aspect of cloud computing would be your primary focus as your project plan continues to develop and you begin to evaluate cloud providers?

    • Interoperability
    • Resiliency
    • Scalability
    • Portability

    Explanation: 
    Interoperability is ability to easily move between cloud providers, by either moving or reusing components and services. This can pertain to any cloud deployment model, and it gives organizations the ability to constantly evaluate costs and services as well as move their business to another cloud provider as needed or desired. Portability relates to the wholesale moving of services from one cloud provider to another, not necessarily the reuse of components or services for other purposes. Although resiliency is not an official concept within cloud computing, it certainly would be found throughout other topics such as elasticity, auto-scaling, and resource pooling. Scalability pertains to changing resource allocations to a service to meet current demand, either upward or downward in scope.

  2. Which of the following provides assurance, to a predetermined acceptable level of certainty, that an entity is indeed who they claim to be?

    • Authentication
    • Identification
    • Proofing
    • Authorization
    Explanation: 
    Authentication goes a step further than identification by providing a means for proving an entity’s identification. Authentication is most commonly done through mechanisms such as passwords. Identification involves ascertaining who the entity is, but without a means of proving it, such as a name or user ID. Authorization occurs after authentication and sets access permissions and other privileges within a system or application for the user. Proofing is not a term that is relevant to the question.
  3. Whereas a contract articulates overall priorities and requirements for a business relationship, which artifact enumerates specific compliance requirements, metrics, and response times?

    • Service level agreement
    • Service level contract
    • Service compliance contract
    • Service level amendment
    Explanation:
    The service level agreement (SLA) articulates minimum requirements for uptime, availability, processes, customer service and support, security controls, auditing requirements, and any other key aspect or requirement of the contract. Although the other choices sound similar to the correct answer, none is the proper term for this concept.
  4. When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and solutions, which of the following cloud concepts would be the most important?

    • Reversibility
    • Elasticity
    • Interoperability
    • Portability
    Explanation:
    Portability is the ability for a service or system to easily move among different cloud providers. This is essential for using a cloud solution for BCDR because vendor lock-in would inhibit easily moving and setting up services in the event of a disaster, or it would necessitate a large number of configuration or component changes to implement. Interoperability, or the ability to reuse components for other services or systems, would not be an important factor for BCDR. Reversibility, or the ability to remove all data quickly and completely from a cloud environment, would be important at the end of a disaster, but would not be important during setup and deployment. Elasticity, or the ability to resize resources to meet current demand, would be very beneficial to a BCDR situation, but not as vital as portability.
  5. What masking strategy involves the replacing of sensitive data at the time it is accessed and used as it flows between the data and application layers of a service?

    • Active
    • Static
    • Dynamic
    • Transactional
    Explanation:
    Dynamic masking involves the live replacing of sensitive data fields during transactional use between the data and application layers of a service. Static masking involves creating a full data set with the sensitive data fields masked, but is not done during live transactions like dynamic masking. Active and transactional are offered as similar types of answers but are not types of masking.
  6. Which of the following would be considered an example of insufficient due diligence leading to security or operational problems when moving to a cloud?

    • Monitoring
    • Use of a remote key management system
    • Programming languages used
    • Reliance on physical network controls
    Explanation:
    Many organizations in a traditional data center make heavy use of physical network controls for security. Although this is a perfectly acceptable best practice in a traditional data center, this reliance is not something that will port to a cloud environment. The failure of an organization to properly understand and adapt to the difference in network controls when moving to a cloud will likely leave an application with security holes and vulnerabilities. The use of a remote key management system, monitoring, or certain programming languages would not constitute insufficient due diligence by itself.
  7. Which aspect of cloud computing serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP to protect data at rest?

    • Portability
    • Resource pooling
    • Interoperability
    • Reversibility
    Explanation:
    Resource pooling serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP solutions to protect data at rest because data is spread across large systems, which are also shared by many different clients. With the data always moving and being distributed, additional challenges for protection are created versus a physical and isolated storage system. Portability is the ability to easily move between different cloud providers, and interoperability is focused on the ability to reuse components or services. Reversibility pertains to the ability of a cloud customer to easily and completely remove their data and services from a cloud provider.
  8. What category of PII data can carry potential fines or even criminal charges for its improper use or disclosure?

    • Protected
    • Legal
    • Regulated
    • Contractual
    Explanation:
    Regulated PII data carries legal and jurisdictional requirements, along with official penalties for its misuse or disclosure, which can be either civil or criminal in nature. Legal and protected are similar terms, but neither is the correct answer in this case. Contractual requirements can carry financial or contractual impacts for the improper use or disclosure of PII data, but not legal or criminal penalties that are officially enforced.
  9. A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network–some that just monitor for threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.

    Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?

    • IDS
    • IPS
    • Proxy
    • Firewall
    Explanation: 
    An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can inspect traffic and detect any suspicious traffic based on a variety of factors, but it can also actively block such traffic. Although an IDS can detect the same types of suspicious traffic as an IPS, it is only design to alert, not to block. A firewall is only concerned with IP addresses, ports, and protocols; it cannot be used for the signature-based detection of traffic. A proxy can limit or direct traffic based on more extensive factors than a network firewall can, but it’s not capable of using the same signature detection rules as an IPS.
  10. Upon completing a risk analysis, a company has four different approaches to addressing risk. Which approach it takes will be based on costs, available options, and adherence to any regulatory requirements from independent audits.

    Which of the following groupings correctly represents the four possible approaches?

    • Accept, avoid, transfer, mitigate
    • Accept, deny, transfer, mitigate
    • Accept, deny, mitigate, revise
    • Accept, dismiss, transfer, mitigate
    Explanation: 
    The four possible approaches to risk are as follows: accept (do not patch and continue with the risk), avoid (implement solutions to prevent the risk from occurring), transfer (take out insurance), and mitigate (change configurations or patch to resolve the risk). Each of these answers contains at least one incorrect approach name.
  11. Which of the following is NOT a component of access control?

    • Accounting
    • Federation
    • Authorization
    • Authentication
    Explanation: 
    Federation is not a component of access control. Instead, it is used to allow users possessing credentials from other authorities and systems to access services outside of their domain. This allows for access and trust without the need to create additional, local credentials. Access control encompasses not only the key concepts of authorization and authentication, but also accounting. Accounting consists of collecting and maintaining logs for both authentication and authorization for operational and regulatory requirements.
  12. What concept does the A represent within the DREAD model?

    • Affected users
    • Authorization
    • Authentication
    • Affinity
    Explanation: 
    The concept of affected users measures the percentage of users who would be impacted by a successful exploit. Scoring ranges from 0, which would impact no users, to 10, which would impact all users. None of the other options provided is the correct term.
  13. With an application hosted in a cloud environment, who could be the recipient of an eDiscovery order?

    • Users
    • Both the cloud provider and cloud customer
    • The cloud customer
    • The cloud provider
    Explanation: 
    Either the cloud customer or the cloud provider could receive an eDiscovery order, and in almost all circumstances they would need to work together to ensure compliance.
  14. Which ITIL component focuses on ensuring that system resources, processes, and personnel are properly allocated to meet SLA requirements?

    • Continuity management
    • Availability management
    • Configuration management
    • Problem management
    Explanation: 
    Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.
  15. Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and configured resources that an organization uses and depends on, whether they are hosted in a traditional data center or a cloud?

    • Problem management
    • Continuity management
    • Availability management
    • Configuration management
    Explanation: 
    Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.
  16. When beginning an audit, both the system owner and the auditors must agree on various aspects of the final audit report.

    Which of the following would NOT be something that is predefined as part of the audit agreement?

    • Size
    • Format
    • Structure
    • Audience
    Explanation: 
    The ultimate size of the audit report is not something that would ever be included in the audit scope or definition. Decisions about the content of the report should be the only factor that drives the ultimate size of the report. The structure, audience, and format of the audit report are all crucial elements that must be defined and agreed upon as part of the audit scope.
  17. What concept does the D represent within the STRIDE threat model?

    • Denial of service
    • Distributed
    • Data breach
    • Data loss
    Explanation: 
    Any application can be a possible target of denial of service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for unauthenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks. None of the other options provided is the correct term.
  18. Which of the following is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?

    • Cell blocking
    • Sandboxing
    • Pooling
    • Fencing
    Explanation: 
    Sandboxing involves the segregation and isolation of information or processes from other information or processes within the same system or application, typically for security concerns. Sandboxing is generally used for data isolation (for example, keeping different communities and populations of users isolated from others with similar data). In IT terminology, pooling typically means bringing together and consolidating resources or services, not segregating or separating them. Cell blocking and fencing are both erroneous terms.
  19. Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?

    • Software as a Service
    • Infrastructure as a Service
    • Platform as a Service
    • Desktop as a Service
    Explanation: 
    SaaS most commonly uses client-side key management. With this type of implementation, the software for doing key management is supplied by the cloud provider, but is hosted and run by the cloud customer. This allows for full integration with the SaaS implementation, but also provides full control to the cloud customer. Although the cloud provider may offer software for performing key management to the cloud customers, with the Infrastructure, Platform, and Desktop as a Service categories, the customers would largely be responsible for their own options and implementations and would not be bound by the offerings from the cloud provider.
  20. Apart from using encryption at the file system level, what technology is the most widely used to protect data stored in an object storage system?

    • TLS
    • HTTPS
    • VPN
    • IRM
    Explanation: 
    Information rights management (IRM) technologies allow security controls and policies to be enforced on a data object regardless of where it resides. They also allow for extended controls such as expirations and copying restrictions, which are not available through traditional control mechanisms. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services and likely will be used in conjunction with other object data protection strategies.
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