CISSP : Certified Information Systems Security Professional : Part 19

  1. What is a characteristic of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

    • SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
    • SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.
    • SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.
    • SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
  2. How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack?

    • Examines log messages or other indications on the system.
    • Monitors alarms sent to the system administrator
    • Matches traffic patterns to virus signature files
    • Examines the Access Control List (ACL)
  3. From a cryptographic perspective, the service of non-repudiation includes which of the following features?

    • Validity of digital certificates
    • Validity of the authorization rules
    • Proof of authenticity of the message
    • Proof of integrity of the message
  4. Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege?

    • Access to an object is denied unless access is specifically allowed.
    • Access to an object is only available to the owner.
    • Access to an object is allowed unless it is protected by the information security policy.
    • Access to an object is only allowed to authenticated users via an Access Control List (ACL).
  5. Which of the following is an advantage of on-premise Credential Management Systems?

    • Lower infrastructure capital costs
    • Control over system configuration
    • Reduced administrative overhead
    • Improved credential interoperability
  6. Which of the following approaches is the MOST effective way to dispose of data on multiple hard drives?

    • Delete every file on each drive.
    • Destroy the partition table for each drive using the command line.
    • Degauss each drive individually.
    • Perform multiple passes on each drive using approved formatting methods.
  7. Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

    • Time of application resumption after disaster
    • Time of application verification after disaster.
    • Time of data validation after disaster.
    • Time of data restoration from backup after disaster.
  8. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

    • It minimized system logging requirements.
    • It supports risk assessment.
    • It reduces asset vulnerabilities.
    • It drives audit processes.
  9. Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce the effectiveness of phishing attacks?

    • User awareness
    • Two-factor authentication
    • Anti-phishing software
    • Periodic vulnerability scan
  10. The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to:

    • comply with applicable laws and regulations.
    • allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system.
    • protect an organization’s sensitive data.
    • verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.
  11. Which of the following is a weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

    • Length of Initialization Vector (IV)
    • Protection against message replay
    • Detection of message tampering
    • Built-in provision to rotate keys
  12. When writing security assessment procedures, what is the MAIN purpose of the test outputs and reports?

    • To force the software to fail and document the process
    • To find areas of compromise in confidentiality and integrity
    • To allow for objective pass or fail decisions
    • To identify malware or hidden code within the test results
  13. Which of the following is the MAIN reason for using configuration management?

    • To provide centralized administration
    • To reduce the number of changes
    • To reduce errors during upgrades
    • To provide consistency in security controls
  14. Which of the following is BEST suited for exchanging authentication and authorization messages in a multi-party decentralized environment?

    • Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
    • Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
    • Internet Mail Access Protocol
    • Transport Layer Security (TLS)
  15. Which of the following is MOST important when deploying digital certificates?

    • Validate compliance with X.509 digital certificate standards
    • Establish a certificate life cycle management framework
    • Use a third-party Certificate Authority (CA)
    • Use no less than 256-bit strength encryption when creating a certificate
  16. A user sends an e-mail request asking for read-only access to files that are not considered sensitive. A Discretionary Access Control (DAC) methodology is in place. Which is the MOST suitable approach that the administrator should take?

    • Administrator should request data owner approval to the user access
    • Administrator should request manager approval for the user access
    • Administrator should directly grant the access to the non-sensitive files
    • Administrator should assess the user access need and either grant or deny the access
  17. How should an organization determine the priority of its remediation efforts after a vulnerability assessment has been conducted?

    • Use an impact-based approach.
    • Use a risk-based approach.
    • Use a criticality-based approach.
    • Use a threat-based approach.
  18. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

    • The dynamic reconfiguration of systems
    • The cost of downtime
    • A recovery strategy for all business processes
    • A containment strategy
  19. A proxy firewall operates at what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

    • Transport
    • Data link
    • Network
    • Application
  20. Which of the following restricts the ability of an individual to carry out all the steps of a particular process?

    • Job rotation
    • Separation of duties
    • Least privilege
    • Mandatory vacations
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