CISSP : Certified Information Systems Security Professional : Part 24

CISSP : Certified Information Systems Security Professional : Part 24

1. What is the HIGHEST priority in agile development?

   • Selecting appropriate coding language
   • Managing costs of product delivery
   • Early and continuous delivery of software
   • Maximizing the amount of code delivered

2. Which of the following value comparisons MOST accurately reflects the agile development approach?

   • Processes and tools over individuals and interactions
   • Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
   • Following a plan over responding to change
   • Working software over comprehensive documentation

3. Which of the following steps should be conducted during the FIRST phase of software assurance in a generic acquisition process?

   • Establishing and consenting to the contract work schedule
   • Issuing a Request for Proposal (RFP) with a work statement
   • Developing software requirements to be included in work statement
   • Reviewing and accepting software deliverables

4. What is the FINAL step in the waterfall method for contingency planning?

   • Maintenance
   • Testing
   • Implementation
   • Training

5. As users switch roles within an organization, their accounts are given additional permissions to perform the duties of their new position. After a recent audit, it was discovered that many of these accounts maintained their old permissions as well. The obsolete permissions identified by the audit have been remediated and accounts have only the appropriate permissions to complete their jobs.

   Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent access privilege creep?

   • Implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution
   • Time-based review and certification
   • Internet audit
   • Trigger-based review and certification

6. Which of the following is the MOST important output from a mobile application threat modeling exercise according to Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)?

   • The likelihood and impact of a vulnerability
   • Application interface entry and endpoints
   • Countermeasures and mitigations for vulnerabilities
   • A data flow diagram for the application and attack surface analysis

7. Continuity of operations is BEST supported by which of the following?

   • Confidentiality, availability, and reliability
   • Connectivity, reliability, and redundancy
   • Connectivity, reliability, and recovery
   • Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

8. Which of the following is true of Service Organization Control (SOC) reports?

   • SOC 1 Type 2 reports assess the security, confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization’s controls
   • SOC 2 Type 2 reports include information of interest to the service organization’s management
   • SOC 2 Type 2 reports assess internal controls for financial reporting
   • SOC 3 Type 2 reports assess internal controls for financial reporting

   Explanation:

   Reference: http://ssae16.businesscatalyst.com/SSAE16_reports.html

9. What testing technique enables the designer to develop mitigation strategies for potential vulnerabilities?

   • Manual inspections and reviews
   • Penetration testing
   • Threat modeling
   • Source code review
   Explanation:
   Reference: https://owasp.org/www-project-web-security-testing-guide/assets/archive/OWASP_Testing_Guide_v4.pdf (15)

10. Which of the following is the MOST important activity an organization performs to ensure that security is part of the overall organization culture?

    • Perform formal reviews of security incidents.
    • Work with senior management to meet business goals.
    • Ensure security policies are issued to all employees.
    • Manage a program of security audits.
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://techbeacon.com/security/6-ways-develop-security-culture-top-bottom

11. Asymmetric algorithms are used for which of the following when using Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) for implementing network security?

    • Peer authentication
    • Payload data encryption
    • Session encryption
    • Hashing digest

12. What is the MOST common component of a vulnerability management framework?

    • Risk analysis
    • Patch management
    • Threat analysis
    • Backup management
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://www.helpnetsecurity.com/2016/10/11/effective-vulnerability-management-process/

13. A new Chief Information Officer (CIO) created a group to write a data retention policy based on applicable laws. Which of the following is the PRIMARY motivation for the policy?

    • To back up data that is used on a daily basis
    • To dispose of data in order to limit liability
    • To reduce costs by reducing the amount of retained data
    • To classify data according to what it contains

14. What determines the level of security of a combination lock?

    • Complexity of combination required to open the lock
    • Amount of time it takes to brute force the combination
    • The number of barrels associated with the internal mechanism
    • The hardness score of the metal lock material
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=RbihG-YALUkC&pg=PA976&lpg=PA976&dq=CISSP+determines+the+level+of+security+of+a+combination+lock&source=bl&ots=ld6arg_Pl9&sig=ACfU3U0kh_Trrg6mQ65NmAP5PnUCIPmD0Q&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjg69zN4KnpAhUJmRoKHR01B_MQ6AEwDHoECBUQAQ#v=onepage&q=combination%20lock&f=false

15. A user downloads a file from the Internet, then applies the Secure Hash Algorithm 3 (SHA-3) to it. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for doing so?

    • It verifies the integrity of the file.
    • It checks the file for malware.
    • It ensures the entire file downloaded.
    • It encrypts the entire file.
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://blog.logsign.com/how-to-check-the-integrity-of-a-file/

16. An organization that has achieved a Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) level of 4 has done which of the following?

    • Achieved optimized process performance
    • Achieved predictable process performance
    • Addressed the causes of common process variance
    • Addressed continuous innovative process improvement

17. Which of the following is held accountable for the risk to organizational systems and data that result from outsourcing Information Technology (IT) systems and services?

    • The acquiring organization
    • The service provider
    • The risk executive (function)
    • The IT manager

18. Which of the following is the BEST definition of Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)?

    • An attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated
    • An attack that injects a script into a web page to execute a privileged command
    • An attack that makes an illegal request across security zones and thereby forges itself into the security database of the system
    • An attack that forges a false Structure Query Language (SQL) command across systems
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://portswigger.net/web-security/csrf

19. Which of the following is a process in the access provisioning lifecycle that will MOST likely identify access aggregation issues?

    • Test
    • Assessment
    • Review
    • Peer review
    Explanation:
    Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=W2TvAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA256&lpg=PA256&dq=process+in+the+access+provisioning+lifecycle+that+will+MOST+likely+identify+access+aggregation+issues&source=bl&ots=OBJo9fbGP3&sig=ACfU3U1eAWDu3q4EoiusrOi_hvtu6WyaIg&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiu-Mac0anpAhXIxIUKHQi2BFsQ6AEwAXoECBAQAQ#v=onepage&q=process%20in%20the%20access%20provisioning%20lifecycle%20that%20will%20MOST%20likely%20identify%20access%20aggregation%20issues&f=false

20. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason a sniffer operating on a network is collecting packets only from its own host?

    • An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has dropped the packets.
    • The network is connected using switches.
    • The network is connected using hubs.
    • The network’s firewall does not allow sniffing.