CSSLP : Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional : Part 01

CSSLP : Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional : Part 01

1. Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment? 

   • Phase 2
   • Phase 4
   • Phase 1
   • Phase 3

   Explanation:

   The Phase 3 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Validation. The goal of Phase 3 is to validate that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment. Answer: C is incorrect. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer: A is incorrect. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. Answer: B is incorrect. This phase ensures that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk.

2. How can you calculate the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) that may occur due to a threat?

   • Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) 
   • Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)/ Exposure Factor (EF)
   • Asset Value X Exposure Factor (EF)
   • Exposure Factor (EF)/Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
   Explanation:
    The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) that occurs due to a threat can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate Single Loss Expectancy (SLE).

3. Which of the following is a chronological record of system activities to enable the reconstruction and examination of the sequence of events and/or changes in an event?

   • Corrective controls
   • Audit trail 
   • Security audit
   • Detective controls
   Explanation:
   Audit trail or audit log is a chronological sequence of audit records, each of which contains evidence directly pertaining to and resulting from the execution of a business process or system function. Audit records typically result from activities such as transactions or communications by individual people, systems, accounts, or other entities. The process that creates audit trail should always run in a privileged mode, so it could access and supervise all actions from all users, and normal user could not stop/change it. Furthermore, for the same reason, trail file or database table with a trail should not be accessible to normal users. Answer: C is incorrect. A computer security audit is a manual or systematic measurable technical assessment of a system or application. Manual assessments include interviewing staff, performing security vulnerability scans, reviewing application and operating system access controls, and analyzing physical access to the systems. Automated assessments, or CAAT’s, include system generated audit reports or using software to monitor and report changes to files and settings on a system. Systems can include personal computers, servers, mainframes, network routers, and switches. Answer: D is incorrect. Detective controls are the audit controls that are not needed to be restricted. Any control that performs a monitoring activity can likely be defined as a Detective Control. For example, it is possible that mistakes, either intentional or unintentional, can be made. Therefore, an additional Protective control is that these companies must have their financial results audited by an independent Certified Public Accountant. The role of this accountant is to act as an auditor. In fact, any auditor acts as a Detective control. If the organization in question has not properly followed the rules, a diligent auditor should be able to detect the deficiency which indicates that some control somewhere has failed. Answer: A is incorrect. Reactive or corrective controls typically work in response to a detective control, responding in such a way as to alert or otherwise correct an unacceptable condition. Using the example of account rules, either the internal Audit Committee or the SEC itself, based on the report generated by the external auditor, will take some corrective action. In this way, they are acting as a Corrective or Reactive control.

4. Which of the following models manages the software development process if the developers are limited to go back only one stage to rework?

   • Waterfall model 
   • Spiral model
   • RAD model
   • Prototyping model
   Explanation:
    In the waterfall model, software development can be managed if the developers are limited to go back only one stage to rework. If this limitation is not imposed mainly on a large project with several team members, then any developer can be working on any phase at any time, and the required rework might be accomplished several times. Answer: B is incorrect. The spiral model is a software development process combining elements of both design and prototyping-in- stages, in an effort to combine advantages of top-down and bottom-up concepts. The basic principles of the spiral model are as follows: The focus is on risk assessment and minimizing project risks by breaking a project into smaller segments and providing more ease-of- change during the development process, as well as providing the opportunity to evaluate risks and weigh consideration of project continuation throughout the life cycle. Each cycle involves a progression through the same sequence of steps, for each portion of the product and for each of its levels of elaboration, from an overall concept-of-operation document down to the coding of each individual program. Each trip around the spiral traverses the following four basic quadrants: Determine objectives, alternatives, and constraints of the iteration. Evaluate alternatives, and identify and resolve risks. Develop and verify deliverables from the iteration. Plan the next iteration.
   Begin each cycle with an identification of stakeholders and their win conditions, and end each cycle with review and commitment. Answer: D is incorrect. The Prototyping model is a systems development method (SDM). In this model, a prototype is created, tested, and then reworked as necessary until an adequate prototype is finally achieved from which the complete system or product can now be developed. Answer: C is incorrect. Rapid Application Development (RAD) refers to a type of software development methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping.

5. Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?

   • Discretionary Access Control
   • Mandatory Access Control
   • Policy Access Control
   • Role-Based Access Control
   Explanation:
    Role-based access control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: B is incorrect. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as “secret”, he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: A is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. This model is commonly used in PC environment. The basis of this model is the use of Access Control List (ACL). Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.

6. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization’s loss from a single threat. Which of the following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?

   • SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) 
   • SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
   • SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
   • SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
   Explanation:
    Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Answer: C, D, and B are incorrect. These are not valid formulas of SLE.

7. Which of the following is a patch management utility that scans one or more computers on a network and alerts a user if any important Microsoft security patches are missing and also provides links that enable those missing patches to be downloaded and installed?

   • MABS
   • ASNB
   • MBSA 
   • IDMS
   Explanation:
    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes a graphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server 2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans for missing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQL Server etc. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.

8. Which of the following DoD policies establishes policies and assigns responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare?

   • DoDI 5200.40
   • DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA) 
   • DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP
   • DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation
   Explanation:
    DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA) sets up policies and allots responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare. DoD 8500.1 also summarizes the roles and responsibilities for the persons responsible for carrying out the IA policies. Answer: D is incorrect. The DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation pursues 8500.1. It provides assistance on how to implement policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for applying integrated, layered protection of the DoD information systems and networks. DoD Instruction 8500.2 allots tasks and sets procedures for applying integrated layered protection of the DOD information systems and networks in accordance with the DoD 8500.1 policy. It also provides some important guidelines on how to implement an IA program. Answer: A is incorrect. DoDI 5200.40 executes the policy, assigns responsibilities, and recommends procedures under reference for Certification and Accreditation(C&A) of information technology (IT). Answer: C is incorrect. DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP provides standardized activities leading to accreditation, and establishes a process and management baseline.

9. Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a particular message?

   • Confidentiality
   • Non-repudiation 
   • Authentication
   • Integrity
   Explanation:
    Non-repudiation is a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a message. It provides an evidence of the identity of the senderand message integrity. It also prevents a person from denying the submission or delivery of the message and the integrity of its contents. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person or network host. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality ensures that no one can read a message except the intended receiver. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrity assures the receiver that the received message has not been altered in any way from the original.

10. In which of the following levels of exception safety are operations succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations?

    • Commit or rollback semantics
    • Minimal exception safety
    • Failure transparency 
    • Basic exception safety
    Explanation:
     Failure transparency is the best level of exception safety. In this level, operations are succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations. Failure transparency does not throw the exception further up even when an exception occurs. This level is also known as no throw guarantee.

11. You are the project manager for a construction project. The project involves casting of a column in a very narrow space. Because of lack of space, casting it is highly dangerous. High technical skill will be required for casting that column. You decide to hire a local expert team for casting that column. Which of the following types of risk response are you following?

    • Avoidance
    • Acceptance
    • Mitigation
    • Transference
    Explanation: 
    According to the question, you are hiring a local expert team for casting the column. As you have transferred your risk to a third party, this is the transference risk response that you have adopted. Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference. Answer: C is incorrect. Mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with threats that seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk to below an acceptable threshold. Risk mitigation involves taking early action to reduce the probability and impact of a risk occurring on the project. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions. Answer: A is incorrect. Avoidance involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely. Answer: B is incorrect. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities.

12. Which of the following test methods has the objective to test the IT system from the viewpoint of a threat-source and to identify potential failures in the IT system protection schemes?

    • Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E)
    • Penetration testing 
    • Automated vulnerability scanning tool
    • On-site interviews
    Explanation:
     The goal of penetration testing is to examine the IT system from the perspective of a threat-source, and to identify potential failures in the IT system protection schemes. Penetration testing, when performed in the risk assessment process, is used to assess an IT system’s capability to survive with the intended attempts to thwart system security. Answer: A is incorrect. The objective of ST&E is to ensure that the applied controls meet the approved security specification for the software and hardware and implement the organization’s security policy or meet industry standards.

13. Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE when classifying the needed security functionality?

    • Information Protection Policy (IPP) 
    • IMM
    • System Security Context
    • CONOPS
    Explanation: 
    The Information Protection Policy (IPP) is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE when classifying the needed security functionality. The IPP document consists of the threats to the information management and the security services and controls needed to respond to those threats. Answer: B is incorrect. The IMM is the source document describing the customer’s needs based on identifying users, processes, and information. Answer: C is incorrect. The System Security Context is the output of SE and ISSEP. It is the translation of the requirements into system parameters and possible measurement concepts that meet the defined requirements. Answer: D is incorrect. The Concept of Operations (CONOPS) is a document describing the characteristics of a proposed system from the viewpoint of an individual who will use that system. It is used to communicate the quantitative and qualitative system characteristics to all stakeholders. CONOPS are widely used in the military or in government services, as well as other fields. A CONOPS generally evolves from a concept and is a description of how a set of capabilities may be employed to achieve desired objectives or a particular end state for a specific scenario.

14. John works as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. He has modified the software, and wants to retest the application to ensure that bugs have been fixed or not. Which of the following tests should John use to accomplish the task?

    • Reliability test
    • Functional test
    • Performance test
    • Regression test
    Explanation:
     John should use the regression tests to retest the application to guarantee that bugs have been fixed. This test will help him to check that the earlier working functions have not failed as a result of the changes, and newly added features have not created problems with the previous versions. The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

15. The DARPA paper defines various procedural patterns to perform secure system development practices. Which of the following patterns does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. 

    • Hidden implementation
    • Document the server configuration
    • Patch proactively
    • Red team the design
    • Password propagation
    Explanation:
     The following procedural patterns are defined by the DARPA paper in order to perform secure software development practices: Build the server from the ground up: It includes the following features: Build the server from the ground up. Identify the default installation of the operating system and applications. Support hardening procedures to remove unnecessary services. Identify a vulnerable service for ongoing risk management. Choose the right stuff: It defines guidelines to select right commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components and decide whether to use and build custom components. Document the server configuration: It supports the creation of an initial configuration baseline and tracks all modifications made to servers and application configurations.
    Patch proactively: It supports in applying patches as soon as they are available rather than waiting until the systems cooperate. Red team the design: It supports an independent security assessment from the perspective of an attacker in the quality assurance or testing stage. An independent security assessment is helpful in addressing a security issue before it occurs. Answer: A is incorrect. Hidden implementation pattern is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to software assurance in general. Hidden implementation limits the ability of an attacker to distinguish the internal workings of an application. Answer: E is incorrect. Password propagation is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to aspects of authentication in a Web application. Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user’s authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user’s data.

16. In which of the following SDLC phases is the system’s security features configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing?

    • Development/Acquisition Phase
    • Operation/Maintenance Phase
    • Implementation Phase 
    • Initiation Phase
    Explanation:
    It is the implementation phase, in which the system’s security features are configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing. A design review and systems test should be performed prior to placing the system into operation to ensure that it meets security specifications. Answer: B is incorrect. In Operation/Maintenance Phase, the system performs its work. The system is almost always being continuously modified by the addition of hardware and software and by numerous other events. Answer: D is incorrect. In the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. In Development/Acquisition Phase, the system is designed, purchased, programmed, developed, or otherwise constructed.

17. Which of the following processes will you involve to perform the active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known and/or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures?

    • Penetration testing 
    • Baselining
    • Risk analysis
    • Compliance checking
    Explanation: 
    A penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration test is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk elements to the project and their potential impact. Answer: D is incorrect. Compliance checking performs the reviews for safeguards and controls to verify whether the entity is complying with particular procedures, rules or not. It includes the inspection of operational systems to guarantee that hardware and software controls have been correctly implemented and maintained. Compliance checking covers the activities such as penetration testing and vulnerability assessments. Compliance checking must be performed by skilled persons, or by an automated software package. Answer: B is incorrect. Baselining is a method for analyzing the performance of computer networks. The method is marked by comparing the current performance to a historical metric, or “baseline”. For example, if a user measured the performance of a network switch over a period of time, he could use that performance figure as a comparative baseline if he made a configuration change to the switch.

18. Which of the following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

    • Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. 
    • Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data.
    • Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian.
    • Determining what level of classification the information requires.
    Explanation: 
    The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian. An information owner can be an executive or a manager of an organization. He will be responsible for the asset of information that must be protected. Answer: B is incorrect. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data is the responsibility of a custodian.

19. Which of the following ISO standards is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques – Information security management – Measurement”?

    • ISO 27003
    • ISO 27005
    • ISO 27004 
    • ISO 27006
    Explanation: 
    ISO 27004 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques – Information security management – Measurement”. The ISO 27004 standard provides guidelines on specifications and use of measurement techniques for the assessment of the effectiveness of an implemented information security management system and controls. It also helps an organization in establishing the effectiveness of ISMS implementation, embracing benchmarking, and performance targeting within the PDCA (plan-do-check-act) cycle. Answer: A is incorrect. ISO 27003 is entitled as “Information Technology – Security techniques – Information security management system implementation guidance”. Answer: B is incorrect. ISO 27005 is entitled as “ISO/IEC 27005:2008 Information technology — Security techniques — Information security risk management”. Answer: D is incorrect. ISO 27006 is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques – Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems”.

20. You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you employ to accomplish the task?

    • Configuration identification
    • Configuration control
    • Functional configuration audit
    • Physical configuration audit
    Explanation: 
    Physical Configuration Audit (PCA) is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. The purpose of the software PCA is to ensure that the design and reference documentation is consistent with the as-built software product. PCA checks and matches the really implemented layout with the documented layout. Answer: C is incorrect. Functional Configuration Audit or FCA is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. FCA occurs either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A Functional Configuration Audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved. Answer: B is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: A is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.