CSSLP : Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional : Part 11

CSSLP : Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional : Part 11

1. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and the role of a data custodian?

   • The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments, and the operations manager implements the scheme. 
   • The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the custodian.
   • The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the operations manager.
   • The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the data owner.

   Explanation:

   The data owner is responsible for ensuring that the appropriate security controls are in place, for assigning the initial classification to the data to be protected, for approving access requests from other parts of the organization, and for periodically reviewing the data classifications and access rights. Data owners are primarily responsible for determining the data’s sensitivity or classification levels, whereas the data custodian has the responsibility for backup, retention, and recovery of data. The data owner delegates these responsibilities to the custodian. Answer: B, A, and C are incorrect. These are not the valid answers.

2. Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology will define the above task?

   • Initiation
   • Security Certification
   • Continuous Monitoring 
   • Security Accreditation
   Explanation:
   The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows:
   Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

3. Joseph works as a Software Developer for WebTech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are used to protect a part of software?

   • Code Security law
   • Patent laws 
   • Trademark laws
   • Copyright laws
   Explanation:
   Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of the patent of a product is limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for only a specific length of time. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright laws protect original works or creations of authorship including literary, dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.

4. Which of the following types of signatures is used in an Intrusion Detection System to trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash?

   • Access
   • Benign
   • DoS 
   • Reconnaissance
   Explanation:

   Following are the basic categories of signatures: Informational (benign): These types of signatures trigger on normal network activity. For example: ICMP echo requests The opening or closing of TCP or UDP connections Reconnaissance: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that uncover resources and hosts that are reachable, as well as any possible vulnerabilities that they might contain. For example: Reconnaissance attacks include ping sweeps DNS queries Port scanning Access: These types of signatures trigger on access attacks, which include unauthorized access, unauthorized escalation of privileges, and access to protected or sensitive data. For example:

   Back Orifice A Unicode attack against the Microsoft IIS NetBus DoS: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash. For example: TCP SYN floods The Ping of Death Smurf Fraggle Trinoo Tribe Flood Network

5. Which of the following phases of DITSCAP includes the activities that are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle? 

   • Phase 3, Validation
   • Phase 1, Definition
   • Phase 2, Verification
   • Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase
   Explanation:
   Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase of the DITSCAP includes the activities, which are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle. Answer: B is incorrect. Phase 1, Definition, focuses on understanding the mission, the environment, and the architecture in order to determine the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve accreditation. Answer: C is incorrect. Phase 2, Verification, verifies the evolving or modified system’s compliance with the information agreed on in the System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA). Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 3 validates the compliance of a fully integrated system with the information stated in the SSAA.

6. In which of the following alternative processing sites is the backup facility maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility?

   • Cold Site
   • Hot Site 
   • Warm Site
   • Mobile Site
   Explanation:
   A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility.
   A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer: A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site or off site. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site. These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent to the warm site by courier.

7. Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?

   • Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) 
   • Service-oriented architecture (SOA)
   • Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)
   • Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)
   Explanation:
   The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) has been proposed by author Michael Bell as a service-oriented modeling language for software development that employs disciplines and a holistic language to provide strategic solutions to enterprise problems. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) is a service-oriented development life cycle methodology. It offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling. The service-oriented modeling framework illustrates the major elements that identify the “what to do” aspects of a service development scheme. Answer: B is incorrect. The service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a flexible set of design principles used during the phases of systems development and integration. Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) includes an analysis and design method that extends traditional object-oriented and component-based analysis and design methods to include concerns relevant to and supporting SOA. Answer: C is incorrect. SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management. It is a model and a methodology for developing risk-driven enterprise information security architectures and for delivering security infrastructure solutions that support critical business initiatives.

8. Which of the following testing methods verifies the interfaces between components against a software design?

   • Regression testing
   • Integration testing 
   • Black-box testing
   • Unit testing
   Explanation:
   Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Answer: D is incorrect. Unit testing refers to tests that verify the functionality of a specific section of code, usually at the function level. In an object-oriented environment, this is usually at the class level, and the minimal unit tests include the constructors and destructors. These types of tests are usually written by developers as they work on code (white-box style), to ensure that the specific function is working as expected. One function might have multiple tests, to catch corner cases or other branches in the code. Unit testing alone cannot verify the functionality of a piece of software, but rather is used to assure that the building blocks the software uses work independently of each other. Answer: C is incorrect. The black-box testing uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and design to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object’s internal structure. This method of test design is applicable to all levels of software testing: unit, integration, functional testing, system and acceptance. The higher the level, and hence the bigger and more complex the box, the more one is forced to use black box testing to simplify. While this method can uncover unimplemented parts of the specification, one cannot be sure that all existent paths are tested.

9. A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management that dictates what role security plays within the organization. Which of the following are required to be addressed in a well designed policy? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

   • What is being secured?
   • Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk?
   • Who is expected to exploit the vulnerability?
   • Who is expected to comply with the policy?
   Explanation:
   A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management (or a selected policy board or committee) that dictates what role security plays within the organization. A well designed policy addresses the following: What is being secured? – Typically an asset. Who is expected to comply with the policy? – Typically employees. Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk? – Typically an issue of integrity or responsibility.

10. The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Security operations
    • Maintenance of the SSAA
    • Compliance validation
    • Change management
    • System operations
    • Continue to review and refine the SSAA
    Explanation:
    The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer: F is incorrect. It is a Phase 3 activity.

11. Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is true?

    • It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
    • It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
    • It ensures reliable and timely access to resources. 
    • It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
    Explanation:
    The concept of availability ensures reliable and timely access to data or resources. In other words, availability ensures that the systems are up and running when needed. The availability concept also ensures that the security services are in working order. Answer: A and D are incorrect. The concept of integrity ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. It also ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes. Answer: B is incorrect. Accountability determines the actions and behaviors of an individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual. Audit trails and logs support accountability.

12. Which of the following areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, is a collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy?

    • Local Computing Environments
    • Networks and Infrastructures
    • Supporting Infrastructures
    • Enclave Boundaries
    Explanation:
    The areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, are as follows: Local Computing Environments: This area includes servers, client workstations, operating system, and applications. Enclave Boundaries: This area consists of collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy. Networks and Infrastructures: This area provides the network connectivity between enclaves. It includes operational area networks (OANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), and campus area networks (CANs). Supporting Infrastructures: This area provides security services for networks, client workstations, Web servers, operating systems, applications, files, and single-use infrastructure machines

13. Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS) ?

    • RealSecure
    • StealthWatch
    • Tripwire
    • Snort
    Explanation:
    Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows: Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behavior-based intrusion detection system. Answer: A is incorrect. RealSecure is a network-based IDS that monitors TCP, UDP and ICMP traffic and is configured to look for attack patterns. Answer: C is incorrect. Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection.

14. Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?

    • DoD 8910.1
    • DoD 7950.1-M 
    • DoDD 8000.1
    • DoD 5200.22-M
    • DoD 5200.1-R
    Explanation:
    The various DoD directives are as follows:
    DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Information Security Program Regulation’. DoD 5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the ‘National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual’. DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Defense Automation Resources Management Manual’. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Defense Information Management (IM) Program’. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Management and Control of Information Requirements’.

15. Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

    • Biba model 
    • Clark-Biba model
    • Clark-Wilson model 
    • Bell-LaPadula model
    Explanation:
    The Biba and Clark-Wilson access control models are used in the commercial sector. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject. The Clark-Wilson security model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. Answer: D is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula access control model is mainly used in military systems. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Clark-Biba.

16. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) provides a common modeling notation to address alignment between business and IT organizations. Which of the following principles does the SOMF concentrate on? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

    • Architectural components abstraction
    • SOA value proposition
    • Business traceability
    • Disaster recovery planning
    • Software assets reuse
    Explanation:
    The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) concentrates on the following principles: Business traceability Architectural best-practices traceability Technological traceability SOA value proposition Software assets reuse SOA integration strategies Technological abstraction and generalization Architectural components abstraction Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) does not concentrate on it.

17. You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems?

    • NIST Special Publication 800-60
    • NIST Special Publication 800-53
    • NIST Special Publication 800-37 
    • NIST Special Publication 800-59
    Explanation:
    NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems.
    NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

18. Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?

    • Use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. 
    • Use of software to meet the deployment goals.
    • Use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks.
    • Use of device properties for unique identification.
    Explanation:
    Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer: D and C are incorrect. The use of device properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM). Answer: B is incorrect. The use of software and hardware to meet the deployment goals is a distracter.

19. You work as the senior project manager in SoftTech Inc. You are working on a software project using configuration management. Through configuration management you are decomposing the verification system into identifiable, understandable, manageable, traceable units that are known as Configuration Items (CIs). According to you, which of the following processes is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items?

    • Configuration status accounting
    • Configuration identification 
    • Configuration auditing
    • Configuration control
    Explanation:
    Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.

20. Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?

    • Data redundancy
    • Hardware redundancy
    • Process redundancy 
    • Application redundancy
    Explanation:
    Process redundancy permits software to run simultaneously on multiple geographically distributed locations, with voting on results. It prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data.