ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam Ch 10 – 14 Answers

Last Updated on March 11, 2021 by Admin

ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam Ch 10 – 14 Answers

Cisco Netacad ITE v7 – IT Essentials (Version 7.00) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam Ch 10 – 14 Exam Answers 2020 2021

  1. Which two tools are available to transfer user data and settings from an old Windows computer to a Windows operating system on a new computer? (Choose two.)

    • Windows Easy Transfer
    •  Windows User Manager
    •  Windows Upgrade Assistant
    •  Windows Upgrade Advisor
    •  User State Migration tool
      Explanation:

      When a new operating system is being installed, existing user data and settings need to be migrated from the old to the new operating system. The User State Migration Tool and the Windows Easy Transfer Tool are available to perform this task on the Windows Vista, 7, and 8 operating systems.

  2. A user wants to extend a primary partition formatted with the NTFS file system with the unallocated space on the hard disk. What must the user do after the primary partition is extended to make it usable?

    • Convert the disk type to dynamic.
    • Ensure that the disk type is basic.
    • Format the disk with the FAT64 file system.
    • Partition the new space as a basic disk.
      Explanation:

      A partition must be formatted with the NTFS file system in order to extend it by using the unallocated space on the disk. Once the partition has been extended, the disk type must be converted to a dynamic disk in order for the new partition to be accessible.

  3. Why is a full format more beneficial than a quick format when preparing for a clean OS installation?

    • A full format is the only method of installing Windows 8.1 on a PC that has an operating system currently installed.
    • A full format will delete files from the disk while analyzing the disk drive for errors.
    • A full format will delete every partition on the hard drive.
    • A full format uses the faster FAT32 file system, whereas a quick format uses the slower NTFS file system.
      Explanation:

      A full format removes files from a partition while scanning the disk for bad sectors. A quick format will remove files from a partition but does not scan a disk for bad sectors.

  4. Match the Windows 10 boot sequence after the boot manager (bootmgr.exe) loads.

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 001

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 001

  5. Match the correct API with its function within the Windows 10 environment.

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 002

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 002

  6. A technician wishes to prepare the computers in the network for disaster recovery. The network consists of a variety of desktops and laptops from different vendors. All the computers are running either a 32-bit version of Windows 10 Pro or a 64-bit version of Windows 10 Pro. How would the technician prepare the recovery media?

    • Prepare one 64-bit recovery disc for all the computers.
    • Prepare one 32-bit recovery disc for all the computers.
    • Prepare individual recovery discs for all the computers.
    • Prepare one image restore for all the computers.
      Explanation:

      All the PCs are from different vendors and thus have dissimilar hardware configurations. Furthermore, all the PCs have a variety of 32-bit Windows 10 and 64-bit Windows 10. Because the PCs have different versions of the OS and dissimilar hardware, you cannot use the same image on all the PCs . In order to use a single image, Sysprep must be used to strip out machine specific information like the SID, and all PCs must have the same hardware configuration and the same version of the Windows operating system.

  7. A technician wishes to deploy Windows 10 Pro to multiple PCs through the remote network installation process. The technician begins by connecting the new PCs to the network and booting them up. However, the deployment fails because the target PCs are unable to communicate with the deployment server. What is the possible cause?

    • The wrong network drivers are loaded in the image file.
    • The SID has not been changed in the image file.
    • The NIC cards on the new PCs are not PXE-enabled.
    • Sysprep was not used before building the image file.
      Explanation:

      The NIC cards on the new PCs have to be PXE-enabled in order for them to communicate with the remote installation services on the server.

  8. Which condition is required when planning to install Windows on a GPT disk?

    • The computer must be UEFI-based.
    • Only one primary partition can contain an OS.
    • The maximum partition size cannot exceed 2 TB.
    • The maximum number of primary partitions that can co-exist is 4.
      Explanation:

      The globally unique identifier (GUID) partition table (GPT) makes use of a number of modern techniques to expand on the older MBR partitioning scheme. GPT is commonly used in computers with UEFI firmware. For Windows 10 to be installed on, and boot, from a GPT disk UEFI must be used.

  9. A technician wishes to perform a customized unattended network installation of Windows 10 on a PC. The requirements include the installation of specific applications and device drivers through the use of an answer file. What would the technician use to create the answer file?

    • Recovery partition
    • Windows SIM
    • disk cloning
    • System Restore
      Explanation:

      To perform a custom Windows Unattended installation, setup.exe must be run with the user options found in the answer file. Additional packages, such as applications or drivers, can be added to the answer file. The Windows System Image Manager (SIM) is used to create the setup answer file.

  10. An organization has purchased a custom application for the sales staff that can only be installed on a 64-bit Windows operating system. Each member of the sales staff has a Windows 8.1 32-bit PC. What must the IT department do in order to install and run the application on the sales staff computers?

    • Downgrade the 32-bit Windows 8.1 to 64-bit Windows 7.
    • Upgrade the 32-bit Windows 8.1 to 64-bit Windows 10.
    • Perform a clean installation of 64-bit Windows 10.
    • Download and install 64-bit hardware drivers in the current OS.
      Explanation:

      A 32-bit OS cannot be upgraded to a 64-bit OS. In this case a clean install of Windows 64-bit would be the only option because the application requires a 64-bit Windows environment to work.

  11. Match the tabs of the Windows 10 Task Manager to their functions. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 003

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 003

  12. Match the drive status indicators in the Disk Management utility with their description. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 004

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 004

  13. Match the wireless security settings to the description. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 005

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 005

  14. What are two possible solutions to any Windows computer restarting continuously and never displaying the desktop? (Choose two.)

    • Upgrade the processor.
    • Press F8 to open the Advanced Options menu and choose Disable Automatic Restart on System Failure.
    • Access the BIOS and change the boot order options.
    • Run chkdsk /F /R from the recovery console.
    • Upgrade the video card.
    • Reset the hard drive jumpers.
      Explanation:

      Upgrading the processor, upgrading the video card, or resetting the hard drive jumper would not fix this problem. Boot order settings cannot cause the system to reboot continuously.

  15. A technician uses Microsoft Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) tool to create a Windows image file on one of the workstations running Windows 10. When the technician tries to clone another workstation with the image file, the workstation exhibits network connectivity issues on completion. What could cause this?

    •  The SID of the original PC is not cleared when creating the image with DISM.
    •  The technician used the wrong tool to create the image file.
    •  The network drivers were not added to the image file.
    •  The Sysprep utility should have been turned off prior to the creation of the image file.
      Explanation:

      The technician must use Sysprep to clean up the local specific configuration, such as the SID, otherwise the cloned systems will not work properly.

  16. A user complains that user files cannot be synced with the network file server while the user is traveling out of the office. The user had access to the internet but no access to the company network server. How can this be addressed?

    • Ensure that the user only uses a single device and not multiple devices when accessing networked files.
    • Turn off the activation of Offline Files feature in the Sync Center.
    • Setup a Sync partnership with the networked file location.
    • Setup a Sync partnership between the network server, Microsoft OneDrive, and the user.
      Explanation:

      Because the user has access to the internet, access to the Microsoft OneDrive cloud based service is possible and thus the user can sync with Microsoft OneDrive, which in turn can sync with the company network server from across the internet.

  17. A technician has connected a new internal hard drive to a Windows 10 PC. What must be done in order for Windows 10 to use the new hard drive?

    • Initialize the new hard drive.
    • Extend the partition on an existing hard drive to the new hard drive.
    • Run chkdsk on the new hard drive.
    • Mount the new hard drive.
      Explanation:

      The new hard drive needs to be initialized before it can be used in Windows. This will involve formatting the disk which will erase any existing data on the drive.

  18. What service does PRINT$ provide?

    • It provides a network share for accessing shared printers.
    • It provides printer drivers for printer administrators.
    • It provides a group of hidden printers that only administrative users have permissions to send print jobs to.
    • It provides an administrative Printer share accessible by all local user accounts.
      Explanation:

      PRINT$ is a hidden share for printer drivers. It is shared by default and used to access remote shared printers or provide drivers to clients when sharing a printer.

  19. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 10 laptop infected with a virus that has damaged the master boot record. The technician has booted the laptop using the installation media and is attempting to repair the laptop from the command line interface. Which command can the technician use to repair the corrupt master boot record?

    • bootrec /fixmbr
    • chkdsk
    • msconfig
    • sfc /scannow
      Explanation:

      The sfc /scannow command is used to check the integristy of the system files. The msconfig command allows for viewing the startup configuration mode, while the chkdsk command is used to repair the Windows file system. The bootrec /fixmbr command is used to repair a corrupt master boot record in a Windows 10 environment.

  20. A user reports that a Windows 10 PC displays the error message “Invalid Boot Disk” during the boot process. The IT technician attempts to boot the computer and finds that the error message occurs immediately after the POST. What could be the possible cause?

    • A recently installed device driver is incompatible with the boot controller.
    • BOOTMGR is corrupted.
    • The MBR/GPT is corrupted.
    • A service failed to start during the booting process.
      Explanation:

      The message “invalid Boot Disk” could be a symptom of a missing or damaged MBR/GPT, a missing or damaged Boot Configuration Data file, a boot sector virus, a boot order not set correctly in BIOS, media without an operating system being in a drive, a hard drive not detected or damaged, or the absence of an installed operating system.

  21. Which port number is used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC) to provide remote screen sharing between devices?

    • 22
    • 23
    • 389
    • 3389
    • 5900
      Explanation:

      Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a freeware product that is similar in functionality to RDP and works over port 5900.

  22. Which feature is included with macOS and provides the ability for a remote user to view and change files, folders, and applications on the local computer?

    • Screen Sharing
    • Remote Assistance
    • Virtual Network Computing
    • Remote Desktop
      Explanation:

      In macOS, remote access functionality is provided by the Screen Sharing feature, which is based on Virtual Network Computing (VNC). VNC is a freeware product that is similar in functionality to RDP and works over port 5900.

  23. Which area of concern falls under the operations and planning category in IT documentation?

    • inventory management
    • disaster recovery policies and procedures
    • logical and physical network topology diagrams
    • end-user manual for hardware and software
      Explanation:

      There are four broad categories of IT documentation: Policies, Operations, Projects, and User documentation. Operations is concerned with inventory management.

  24. Match the individual languages with their corresponding classification.

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 006

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 006

    Explanation:

    Scripting languages include Windows batch files, PowerShell, Linux shell script, VBScript, JavaScript, and Python. Compiled languages include C, C++, C#, and Java.

  25. Which two actions should a technician take if illegal content, such as child pornography, is discovered on the hard drive of a customer computer? (Choose two.)

    • Confront the customer immediately.
    • Remove and destroy the hard drive.
    • Contact a first responder.
    • Shut down the computer until authorities arrive.
    • Document as much information as possible.
      Explanation:

      If illegal content is found, begin documentation to build a chain of custody and contact a first responder immediately.

  26. What are three pieces of information a level one technician should gather from a customer? (Choose three.)

    • contact information
    • description of the problem
    • details of any recent changes to the computer
    • output from diagnostic software
    • output from a remote connection to the customer computer
    • current CMOS settings
      Explanation:

      A level one technician should gather information from the customer and solve simple problems. For more advanced diagnostics, opening the computer case, running diagnostics software, and performing remote connections, the problem should be escalated to a level two technician.

  27. What two actions are appropriate for a support desk technician to take when assisting customers? (Choose two.)

    • Interrupt customers if they start to solve their own problems.
    • Comfort a customer by minimizing the customer problem.
    • Let a customer finish talking before asking additional questions.
    • If you have to put the customer on hold, ask the customer for permission.
    • As soon as you detect customer anger, pass the angry customer to the next level.
      Explanation:

      When dealing with customers, a technician should show professionalism in all aspects. A technician should observe the process before putting a customer on hold. First, let the customer finish speaking. Then, explain that there is need to put the customer on hold for a short period, and ask the customer for permission to do so. Tell the customer that it will be only a few minutes and explain what you will do during the period. When the customer agrees to be put on hold, thank the customer.

  28. A support desk technician is dealing with an angry customer. Which two approaches should the technician take in dealing with the customer? (Choose two.)

    • Ask socially related questions to direct the customer away from the problem.
    • Work to redirect the conversation to solving the problem.
    • Immediately transfer the customer to a higher level technician.
    • Reply to the customer with the same level of anger.
    • Let the customer explain the problem without interrupting.
      Explanation:

      Angry customers should be allowed to explain the problem, then be redirected to discussing how the problem can be solved. Transferring the customer, replying in a rude tone, and asking unrelated questions will usually increase, not ease, the anger being expressed by the customer.

  29. What two kinds of problems should be escalated from a level one technician to a level two technician? (Choose two.)

    • problems that require rebooting the equipment
    • problems that can be solved in a short time
    • problems that are complicated and will take a long time to resolve
    • problems that do not fit into the “down call” category
    • problems that are beyond the scope of the knowledge of the level one technician
      Explanation:

      A problem should be escalated to a level two technician when the problem is going to take a long time to fix, is affecting a large number of users, or requires knowledge or expertise that the level one technician does not possess.

  30. An IT technician in a service company has provided extensive remote IT support with product deployment for a customer. After the completion of the contract, a complaint is filed against the IT technician for not following company policy by sending unsolicited emails about services and products that are not related to the contract. What two things should the IT support technician have done differently? (Choose two.)

    • The IT technician should have researched the company policy about personal communication with customers on company time.
    • The IT technician should have used encryption to hide the purpose of the emails.
    • The IT technician should have added the customer to a chain letter with many recipients instead.
    • The IT technician should have asked the customer if the customer was interested in receiving information regarding other new services and products.
    • The IT technician should have requested permission from a supervisor to send the customer emails.
      Explanation:

      While working with customers both briefly and over an extended period of time, it is possible to form friendly relationships. It is important to always follow company policy and never send unsolicited messages to a customer. Also do not send unsolicited mass mailings or chain letters to customers from a company email address. Any personal relationships should be kept via personal email accounts and should not reflect the IT organization of the employer.

  31. A third-party security firm is performing a security audit of a company and recommends the company utilize the Remote Desktop Protocol. What are two characteristics of the Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? (Choose two.)

    • RDP connects on TCP port 22.
    • RDP requires a Windows client.
    • RDP uses an encrypted session.
    • RDP is a command-line network virtual terminal protocol.
    • RDP connects on TCP port 3389.
      Explanation:

      The Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) is used to remotely access a Windows OS. It is a client/server protocol.The port number for RDP is TCP port 3389 and it uses encryption.

  32. Which subject area describes collecting and analyzing data from computer systems, networks, and storage devices, as part of an investigation of alleged illegal activity?

    • cyber law
    • computer forensics
    • cryptography
    • disaster recovery
      Explanation:

      The field of computer forensics involves collecting and analyzing data from computer systems, networks, wireless communications, and storage devices.

  33. In a computer forensics investigation, which type of data is considered volatile data and can be lost if power is removed from the computer?

    • data stored on magnetic disks
    • data stored on an internal drive
    • data in transit between RAM and the CPU
    • data stored on an external drive
      Explanation:

      Volatile data is a data that is lost when power is turned off, and is located in temporary storage such as RAM, cache, CPU or in transit between them.

  34. Refer to the exhibit. During the troubleshooting of software that is installed on a computer system, a level one technician requires help from a level two technician. The file shown in the exhibit must be sent to the level two technician. How should the level one technician deliver this file?

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 02

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 02

    • This file should not be shared with the level two technician.
    • Replace all passwords in the file with <password omitted> before emailing the file and then supply the passwords by secure means, if required.
    • Send the file as it is to the level two technician.
    • Deliver the file in printed format only.
      Explanation:

      Customer privacy should be maintained. The easiest way to preserve it is removing any occurrence of passwords from the documentation that is being sent to another technician.

      If a client password is required to solve the problem, it should be sent to another technician through a specific document.

  35. What skill is essential for a level one technician to have?

    • the ability to gather relevant information from the customer and pass it to the level two technician so it can be entered into the work order
    • the ability to ask the customer relevant questions, and as soon as this information is included in the work order, escalate it to the level two technician
    • the ability to translate a description of a customer problem into a few succinct sentences and enter it into the work order
    • ability to take the work order prepared by the level two technician and try to resolve the problem
      Explanation:

      The level one technician must be able to translate the description of a customer problem into a succinct sentence or two that is entered into the work order.

  36. What is used to control illegal use of software and content?

    • chain of custody
    • service level agreement
    • End User License Agreement
    • digital rights management
      Explanation:

      Digital rights management, or DRM, is software that is designed to prevent illegal access to digital content.

  37. What determines the level of support that a call center technician will provide to an individual customer?

    • Support is based on the SLA for that customer.
    • All customers receive the same level of support by the call center.
    • A level one technician will provide a higher level of support than a level two technician.
    • An individual call center technician chooses the level of support based on the time available to assist the customer.
      Explanation:

      A call center technician must provide the level of support that is outlined in the SLA for that individual customer.

  38. A bench technician enters the server room and finds the backup server computer case open. The hard drives containing patient medical data are all physically disconnected from the motherboard and the SATA data cables are hanging outside the case. Which step should the technician immediately take?

    • Reconnect the SATA data cables to ensure continued data backup.
    • Disconnect the SATA power cables to prevent the loss of persistent data.
    • Place the hard drives in an external enclosure and begin backing up the data before releasing the drives to first responders.
    • Locate an employee qualified to collect evidence.
    • Dust the server computer case for fingerprints.
      Explanation:

      When a potential crime scene is found, a chain of custody must be observed and followed. The technician should immediately locate another employee who is qualified to collect evidence. Disconnecting or reconnecting the drives or attempting to move data may adversely affect the chain of custody.

  39. What is the difference between a scripting language and a compiled language?

    • Scripting languages need to be converted into executable code using a compiler, while compiled languages are interpreted as they are executed.
    • Compiled languages are executed by the operating system, while scripting languages are executed by the CPU.
    • Scripting languages are interpreted and executed line by line when a script is run, while compiled languages need to be converted into executable code.
    • Compiled languages are executed by a command interpreter, while scripting languages are executed by the CPU.
      Explanation:

      A scripting language is different than a compiled language because each line is interpreted and then executed when the script is run. Compiled languages need to be converted into executable code using a compiler. Another difference between the two types of languages is that compiled languages are executed by the CPU while scripting languages are executed by a command interpreter or by the operating system.

  40. Which methods can be used to implement multifactor authentication?

    • VPNs and VLANs
    • IDS and IPS
    • passwords and fingerprints
    • tokens and hashes
      Explanation:

      A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies available that support the CIA triad.

  41. When responding to a call from a customer who is experiencing problems with a computer, the technician notices that a number of system files on the computer have been renamed. Which two possible solutions could the technician implement to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

    • Use antivirus software to remove a virus.
    • Restore the computer from a backup.
    • Change the folder and file permissions of the user.
    • Reset the password of the user.
    • Upgrade the file encryption protocol.
      Explanation:

      Renamed system files are usually the result of a virus on the computer. Removing the virus and restoring the computer from a backup are the only two possible solutions in this case.

  42. A technician suspects that a security issue is causing problems with a computer. What two actions could be performed to test theories of probable cause when troubleshooting the PC? (Choose two.)

    • Log in as a different user.
    • Disconnect the computer from the network.
    • Search helpdesk repair logs for more information.
    • Discuss solutions with the customer.
    • Ask the customer open-ended questions about the problem.
      Explanation:

      Several actions can be taken by a technician when security issues are suspected as the possible cause of a problem with a computer. Logging in as a different user or disconnecting the PC from the network to isolate the cause of the problem are two possible actions.

  43. The CIO wants to secure data on company laptops by implementing file encryption. The technician determines the best method is to encrypt each hard drive using Windows BitLocker. Which two things are needed to implement this solution? (Choose two.)

    • at least two volumes
    • USB stick
    • password management
    • TPM
    • EFS
    • backup
      Explanation:

      Windows provides a method to encrypt files, folders, or entire hard drives depending on need. However, certain BIOS settings and configurations are necessary to implement encryption on an entire hard disk.

  44. What is an accurate description of asymmetric encryption technology?

    • Asymmetric encryption is an encryption process that compares traffic on both ends to make sure the traffic has not been altered.
    • It is an encryption process that uses identical keys on both ends to establish the VPN.
    • It is an encryption protocol that is used to encrypt data as the data is sent over the VPN.
    • It is an encryption process that uses a public and private key pair to encrypt/decrypt data.
  45. Which type of security threat can be transferred through email and is used to gain sensitive information by recording the keystrokes of the email recipient?

    • adware
    • Trojan
    • worm
    • virus
    • grayware
      Explanation:

      Adware does not record keystrokes. A worm self-replicates across the network. A Trojan appears to be a legitimate program while carrying malware, and grayware is a general term for software that may be malware.

  46. A manager reports that unusual things are happening on a Windows computer. The technician determines that malware is the culprit. What can the technician do to remove stubborn malware?

    • Ensure that the computer is connected to the wired network so that antimalware updates can be installed.
    • Enter Safe Mode and do a system restore.
    • Install adware protection.
    • Train the user on identifying trusted and untrusted sources.
      Explanation:

      Booting the computer in Safe Mode prevents most drivers from loading. Additional antimalware software can then be installed to remove or quarantine malware. Sometimes the storage drive must be wiped, the operating system reinstalled, and data restored from a backup.

  47. An employee that has worked at the company for many years has started a home-based business selling crafts. While leaving an office meeting, a company supervisor notices the employee buying supplies for the personal crafting business of the employee. What section of the security policy should the supervisor review when determining how to handle this situation?

    • acceptable use policies
    • identification and authentication policies
    • incident handling policies
    • remote access policies
      Explanation:

      The acceptable use policies section of a security policy commonly identifies network resources and usages that are acceptable to the organization. They might also state the ramifications that can occur if this security policy is violated.

  48. What Windows utility should be used to configure password rules and account lockout policies on a system that is not part of a domain?

    • Event Viewer security log
    • Local Security Policy tool
    • Active Directory Security tool
    • Computer Management
      Explanation:

      A technician must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities. A Windows Domain Security Policy is used and applied when a user logs in to a computer that is on a corporate network. A Windows Local Security Policy is used for stand-alone computers to enforce security settings.

  49. A customer brings in a computer that is asking for a password as soon as it powers on, even before the operating system boots. Which type of password is enabled?

    • BIOS
    • login
    • multifactor
    • network
    • synchronous
      Explanation:

      A BIOS password is configured by entering the BIOS Setup program. If unknown, it can be removed by placing a jumper over two motherboard pins. Some motherboards support BIOS password removal by removing the CMOS battery, but if this is done, all BIOS settings will be reset to the default values.

  50. When attempting to improve system performance for Linux computers with a limited amount of memory, why is increasing the size of the swap file system not considered the best solution?

    • A swap file system only supports the ex2 file system.
    • A swap file system does not have a specific file system.
    • A swap file system cannot be mounted on an MBR partition.
    • A swap file system uses hard disk space to store inactive RAM content.
      Explanation:

      The swap file system is used by Linux when it runs out of physical memory. When needed, the kernel moves inactive RAM content to the swap partition on the hard disk. Storing and retrieving content in the swap partition is much slower than RAM is, and therefore using the swap partition should not be considered the best solution to improving system performance.

  51. What are three features of GPS on mobile devices? (Choose three.)

    • phone number lookup
    • navigation
    • specialized search results
    • device tracking
    • remote wipe
    • gas mileage calculations
      Explanation:

      Navigation, specialized search results, and device tracking are features of GPS on mobile devices. Remote wipe may be a feature on some mobile devices, but is not related to GPS. Phone number lookup and gas mileage calculations are not GPS features.

  52. Which three components are used to assign file and directory permissions in Linux systems? (Choose three.)

    • root
    • group
    • owner
    • all users
    • super group
    • admin group
      Explanation:

      In Linux, file and directory permissions are assigned as follows:

      • Owner – the owner user of the file or directory
      • Group – the user group that has been assigned to the file or directory
      • All users – all other users on the system
  53. A user downloads a widget onto his Android phone but is puzzled to see that when the widget is touched an app is launched. What is a possible cause?

    • The user has downloaded a virus.
    • The widget is corrupt.
    • The security settings of the Android OS have been compromised.
    • The widget is associated with the app and this is the normal behavior.
      Explanation:

      Widgets are programs that when installed associate with the application they were built for. This will cause the application to launch when the widget icon is touched on the touchscreen of the Android device.

  54. What is the purpose of running mobile device apps in a sandbox?

    • to enable the phone to run multiple operating systems
    • to prevent malicious programs from infecting the device
    • to enable separate app icons to be displayed on the home screen
    • to bypass phone carrier restrictions that prevent access to unauthorized apps
      Explanation:

      Mobile device apps are run in a sandbox that isolates them from other resources. Bypassing the phone carrier from preventing access to unauthorized apps is jailbreaking or rooting the device.

  55. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of this mobile device screen?

    ITE v7.0 - IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) - IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 - 14 Answers 01

    ITE v7.0 – IT Essentials ( Version 7.0) – IT Essentials 7.0 Final Exam 10 – 14 Answers 01

    • Tapping and holding the arrow at the bottom left will display the Home screen.
    • Text messages, news, photos and other content can be displayed in the different tiles.
    • Icons and buttons are used to represent the different apps on the phone.
    • Unpinning an app from this view will uninstall the app from the phone.
    • Tile sizes depend on the size of the app.
      Explanation:

      The Windows Phone interface uses tiles to represent apps. Tiles are rectangular areas of a screen that identify the app and may also contain active content such as text messages, news feeds, and photos.

  56. Which built-in tool is available on a Mac OS X machine to perform disk backups?

    • Disk Utility
    • Deja Dup
    • Finder
    • Time Machine 
      Explanation:

      Time Machine is an automatic backup utility in the Mac OS. The Mac Disk Utility allows an administrator to configure disk backups. The Deja Dup tool is a tool built into the Linux OS for backing up data. Finder is similar to the Windows File Explorer tool and is used to navigate the Mac OS file system.

  57. A user calls the help desk reporting that a laptop with Linux freezes on startup and displays kernel panic. What could cause this problem?

    • A driver has become corrupted.
    • GRUB or LILO has been deleted.
    • GRUB or LILO has been corrupted.
    • An application is using a resource that has become unavailable.
      Explanation:

      A corrupted driver or failing hardware could cause kernel panic for Linux or Mac OS. The laptop will not be able to boot successfully. Either GRUB or LILO corruption or GRUB or LILO deletion would cause the stop screen to display a “Missing GRUB” or “Missing LILO” message. A resource unavailable to an application will cause the application to stop responding, but not prevent a laptop from starting up.

  58. A user calls the help desk to report that a mobile device exhibits very slow performance. What could cause this problem?

    • The touchscreen is not calibrated.
    • An app is not compatible with the device.
    • The operating system is corrupt.
    • A power-intensive app is running in the background.
      Explanation:

      A power-intensive app that is running in the background could consume most of the CPU cycles and thus the device would exhibit very slow performance for other apps. If an app is not compatible with the device, the device operating system would freeze. If the operating system has encountered an error, the device will fail to respond.

  59. Which term describes a partition that is used to store and boot an operating system by default?

    • logical drive
    • active partition
    • basic disk
    • extended partition
  60. Which term describes a file system that supports a partition size up to 16 exabytes?

    • extended partition
    • NTFS
    • logical drive
    • active partition
  61. Which term describes a file system for USB flash drives that supports files larger than 4 GB?

    • extended partition
    • exFAT
    • logical drive
    • active partition
  62. Which term describes a partition that supports up to 23 logical drives?

    • logical drive
    • extended partition
    • basic disk
    • active partition
  63. Which term describes a file system for optical disk media?

    • extended partition
    • CDFS
    • logical drive
    • active partition
  64. Which term describes a type of partition that would only exist on a hard disk that has an MBR?

    • extended partition
    • logical drive
    • basic disk
    • active partition
  65. Which term describes a type of storage device that supports a partition to be extended into adjacent unallocated space as long as it is contiguous?

    • NTFS
    • basic disk
    • FAT32
    • formatting
  66. Which term describes a general name for physical areas on a hard drive?

    • NTFS
    • partition
    • FAT32
    • formatting
  67. Which term describes a partition scheme that takes a portion of disk space of 512 bytes long and that contains the boot loader?

    • NTFS
    • MBR
    • FAT32
    • formatting
  68. Which term describes a type of storage device that supports a volume that can span across more than one disk?

    • NTFS
    • dynamic disk
    • FAT32
    • formatting
  69. A technician is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen.
    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition.
  70. A user is booting a tablet that has Windows 10 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition.
  71. A manager is booting a tablet that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: POST. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • BIOS locates and reads the configuration settings that are stored in the CMOS memory.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
  72. An accountant is booting a PC that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: BIOS locates and reads the configuration settings that are stored in the CMOS memory. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • The BIOS boots the computer using the first drive that contains a valid boot sector.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
  73. A network analyst is booting a PC that has Windows 7 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The code in the boot sector is executed and the control of the boot process is given to Windows Boot Manager. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
  74. An analyst is booting a desktop that has Windows 7 installed with 4 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
    • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
    • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
  75. A gamer is booting a desktop that has Windows 7 installed on dynamic drives. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
    • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
    • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
  76. A technician is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The Windows kernel takes over the boot process. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
    • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  77. A user is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
    • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  78. A manager is booting a tablet that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The Windows kernel takes over the boot process. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

    • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
    • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
    • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
    • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
  79. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker was using a specific technique that affected the TCP three-way handshake. What is the type of network attack?

    • SYN flood
    • DDoS
    • DNS poisoning
    • zero-day
  80. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a technique that compares hashed passwords to potential hashes the hacker has. What is the type of network attack?

    • rainbow table
    • DDoS
    • DNS poisoning
    • SYN flood
  81. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the DNS server was sent with an enormous amount of false requests, thus overwhelming the server. What is the type of network attack?

    • DoS
    • DNS poisoning
    • SYN flood
    • zero-day
  82. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a vulnerability that is known to the software vendor, but not patched yet. What is the type of network attack?

    • zero-day
    • DDoS
    • DNS poisoning
    • SYN flood
  83. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that zombies were used to attack the firewall. What is the type of network attack?

    • DDoS
    • DNS poisoning
    • SYN flood
    • zero-day
  84. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that zombies were used to attack the firewall. What is the type of network attack?

    • DDoS
    • zero-day
    • dictionary
    • SYN flood
  85. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a table of words that potentially could be used as passwords. What is the type of network attack?

    • dictionary
    • SYN flood
    • zero-day
    • DNS poisoning
  86. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker injected false records on the server that translates IP addresses to domain names. What is the type of network attack?

    • DNS poisoning
    • zero-day
    • dictionary
    • SYN flood
  87. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a technique that compares hashed passwords to potential hashes the hacker has. What is the type of network attack?

    • rainbow table
    • SYN flood
    • zero-day
    • DNS poisoning
  88. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker was using a specific technique that affected the TCP three-way handshake. What is the type of network attack?

    • SYN flood
    • zero-day
    • dictionary
    • DNS poisoning
  89. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a company that wants a device to monitor incoming and outgoing traffic and stop any malicious activity. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Buy an IPS.
    • Implement a RAID.
    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Use SSL.
  90. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a machine where the antimalware software cannot remove all of the malware. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Use Windows Safe Mode.
    • Implement a RAID.
    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Use SSL.
  91. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a machine where the antimalware software cannot remove all of the malware. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Use Windows Safe Mode.
    • Implement a RAID.
    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Use encryption.
  92. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for preventing tailgating. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Use a mantrap.
    • Implement a RAID.
    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Use encryption.
  93. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for drive redundancy. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Implement a RAID.
    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Disable ports.
    • Implement dual authentication.
  94. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for drive redundancy. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Implement a RAID.
    • Buy an ASA.
    • Use a VPN.
    • Implement dual authentication.
  95. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for phishing. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Provide security awareness training.
    • Buy an ASA.
    • Use a VPN.
    • Employ ping sweeps.
  96. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for protecting a computer used to log in at a dental clinic from someone using a bootable disk containing hacking tools. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Disable ports.
    • Buy an ASA.
    • Use a VPN.
    • Employ ping sweeps.
  97. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for protecting a computer used to log in at a dental clinic from someone using a bootable disk containing hacking tools. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Disable ports.
    • Buy an ASA.
    • Use a VPN.
    • Run vulnerability scanners.
  98. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a manager traveling who needs access to internal corporate resources. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

    • Use a VPN.
    • Buy an ASA.
    • Disable ports.
    • Run vulnerability scanners.
  99. Why would a gamer need to use the move command?

    • to relocate a file from one Windows directory to another one
    • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files
    • to manage a PCs drives, disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual drives
    • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another
  100. Why would a gamer need to use the copy command?

    • to move that file to a different Windows directory while also leaving the file in the current location
    • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files
    • to manage a PCs drives, disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual drives
    • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another
  101. Why would a university student need to use the robocopy command?

    • to copy a group of files from one Windows directory to another
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  102. Why would a university student need to use the xcopy command?

    • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  103. Why would a technical support representative need to use the format command?

    • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  104. Why would a technical support representative need to use the bootrec command?

    • to help to repair the MBR that is suspected of having issues
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  105. Why would a technical support representative need to use the ipconfig command?

    • to display the IPv6 address of the PC
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  106. Why would a user need to use the netstat command?

    • to verify activity on the PC by displaying all active TCP connections on the device
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  107. Why would a user need to use the nslookup command?

    • to query the Domain Name Sysytem (DNS) to get domain names and mapping information
    • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
    • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
    • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system
  108. Why would a manager need to use the ping command?

    • to quickly verify connectivity by sending echo-request messages to the destination and receiving a series of echo-reply messages from that destination
    • to change from the current working folder to another folder
    • to create a new Windows directory
    • to remove an empty directory
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