Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Answers Full 100% 2023 2024

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Answers Full 100% 2023 2024

1. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

   • ARP
   • POP3
   • TCP
   • DHCP
   • FTP
   • UDP
     

     Answers Explanation & Hints: FTP, DHCP, and POP3 are application layer protocols. TCP and UDP are transport layer protocols. ARP is a network layer protocol.

2. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

   • when a client sends a segment to a server
   • when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission
   • when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully
   • when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful

3. What is the function of ARP?

   • provides automatic IP address assignments to hosts
   • sends error and operational information messages to hosts
   • maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
   • resolves domain names to IP addresses

4. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

   

   • The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
   • The switch will discard the frame.
   • The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
   • The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
   • The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
     

     Answers Explanation & Hints: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

5. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

   • implementing EtherChannel
   • implementing redundancy
   • implementing routing protocols
   • implementing wireless connectivity

6. Which network server is malfunctioning if a user can ping the IP address of a web server but cannot ping the web server host name?

   • the DHCP server
   • the DNS server
   • the FTP server
   • the HTTP server
     

     Explanation: If pings are successful to an IP address but not to a host name, then the problem may be that a DNS server cannot be accessed.

7. A PC is not able to connect to a wired network. Pinging the loopback address is successful, but the gateway cannot be reached. On the network switch all the interface lights are on, except for the interface connected to the PC. The LED on the network card is off. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

   • The gateway needs to be fixed.
   • The network cable is faulty.
   • The PC has an incorrect IP address for the DNS server.
   • The network switch is faulty.
     

     Explanation: The network card is working if the loopback address can be pinged. The LED on the network card being off points towards a faulty cable or a bad connection.

8. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

   • nslookup
   • ipconfig
   • tracert
   • netstat
     

     Answers Explanation & Hints: The nslookup command can be used to look up information about a particular DNS name in the DNS server. The information includes the IP address of the DNS server being used as well as the IP address associated with the specified DNS name. This command can help verify the DNS that is used and if the domain name to IP address resolution works.

9. Which type of network is covered by the IEEE 802.11 standards?

   • Internet
   • Ethernet
   • Wi-Fi
   • WAN

10. What are two benefits of wireless networks over wired networks? (Choose two.)

    • increased security
    • anytime, anywhere connectivity
    • immunity to interference
    • speed
    • mobility

11. Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

    • MAC address table
    • SSID
    • WEP
    • WPA
      

      Explanation: When a wireless AP or router is being set up, an SSID is configured to uniquely identify the WLAN that is managed by the device.

12. Match the components in the notation 100Base-T to the specification. (Not all options are used.)

    

13. Match the TCP/IP model layer to the function.

    

14. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

    • transport
    • physical
    • network
    • data link
    • session
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI application, presentation, and session layers are functionally equivalent to the application layer within the TCP/IP model.

15. Which address is a valid IPv6 address that could be assigned to a host?

    • 2001:db8::1111::200/80
    • 2001:db8::1111::200/64​
    • 2001:db8:0:1111::200/44
    • 2001:db8:0:1111::200/120​

16. Which function does NAT perform in a wireless router?

    • NAT takes an internal source IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
    • NAT takes a source IP address and translates it to a default gateway address.
    • NAT takes a destination IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
    • NAT takes a local IP address and translates it to an internal source IP address.

17. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

    • unique local
    • global unicast
    • link-local
    • loopback
      

      Explanation: When IPv6 is enabled on any interface, that interface will automatically generate an IPv6 link-local address.

18. A network administrator investigates a user problem. The user can reach hosts on the same network, but is unable to communicate to remote networks.The network administrator tries to ping the gateway address configured on the host device and is unsuccessful. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • The IP address of the user is incorrectly configured.
    • The default gateway address is incorrect.
    • The address of the remote device is incorrect.
    • TCP/IP is not installed on the host device.

19. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

    

    Explanation: The shortcuts with their functions are as follows: – Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword – Space bar – displays the next screen – ? – provides context-sensitive help – Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands – Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode – Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute

20. What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?

    • It identifies a network that is a static route.
    • It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF.
    • It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP.
    • It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router.

21. Which switch command would a network administrator use to determine if there are encapsulation or media errors on an interface?

    • show line
    • show ip interface
    • show interfaces
    • show arp

22. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

    • switch
    • hub
    • router
    • repeater
      

      Explanation: Switches are the central connection point for a LAN and they maintain a MAC address table. The MAC address table has a port number associated with a MAC address for each particular device. The switch inspects a frame to look at the destination MAC address. The switch then looks in its MAC address table and if that MAC address is found, the switch forwards the data to the port that is associated with that particular MAC address.

23. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

    • the first Ethernet port interface
    • the switch virtual interface
    • the console port interface
    • the AUX interface
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that provides a means for remotely managing the device.

24. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

    • ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
    • Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
    • RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
    • ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
    • Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
    • NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

25. Which feature is characteristic of MAC filtering in wireless networks?

    • It restricts computer access to a wireless network.
    • It encrypts data that is transmitted on a wireless network.
    • It allows only authorized users to detect the network.
    • It is configured on the computer rather than on the router.
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: MAC address filtering uses the MAC address to identify which devices are allowed to connect to the wireless network.

26. Which wireless security technology is difficult to crack and provides encryption of network traffic?

    • MAC address filtering
    • WEP
    • WPA2
    • EAP

27. Which two statements about a Service Set Identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

    • It is responsible for determining the signal strength.
    • It tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs.
    • All wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID.
    • It provides strong wireless security.
    • It is used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network.

28. What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

    • susceptible to EMI and RFI
    • commonly used for Internet connectivity by a cable TV provider
    • easiest type of networking cable to install
    • commonly used between buildings
    • uses light to transmit data
    • most commonly used networking cable

29. Which three factors should be considered when choosing the appropriate network media? (Choose three.)

    • the data security and fault tolerance requirement
    • the environment in which the media is installed
    • the amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
    • the operating systems used on network devices in the network
    • the distance between hosts that the media will connect
    • the speed of the CPU and amount of memory in servers
      

      Explanation: Several criteria should be considered when selecting network media: The cost of the media and installation The environment in which the media is installed The amount of data and the data transfer rate desired The distance between hosts that the media will connect

30. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

    • easily terminated
    • greater distances per cable run
    • lower installation cost
    • limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
    • greater bandwidth potential
    • durable connections
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

    

    • D, E, F, H, I, J
    • A, C, D
    • B, E, G, H
    • C, D, G, H, I, J
    • E, F, H, I, J

32. What is an advantage of the peer-to-peer network model?

    • high level of security
    • scalability
    • ease of setup
    • centralized administration

33. Which three devices are considered intermediate devices in a network? (Choose three.)

    • wireless access point
    • network printer
    • server
    • switch
    • workstation
    • router
      

      Explanation: Intermediate devices in a network provide network connectivity to end devices and transfer user data packets during data communications.

34. Which two methods are used to directly connect mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones to a data network? (Choose two.)

    • Wi-Fi
    • Bluetooth
    • wired Ethernet
    • cellular communications
    • WiMax

35. Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

    • touch-pad with digital stylus
    • printer
    • scanner
    • tablet
    • laptop
      

      Explanation: A shared peripheral device does not connect directly to a network. This device is attached to a host (such as a PC) and the host connects to the network to share the peripheral device.

36. Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to communicate with other hosts on remote networks? (Choose three.)

    • DHCP server address
    • subnet mask
    • IP address
    • default gateway
    • DNS server
    • domain name
      

      Explanation: An IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway are required on a host that must communicate with another host in a remote network. DNS server information is needed if mapping a domain name to an associated IP address. DHCP server information is dynamically learned and is not a required configuration for remote network reachability.

37. A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless technology would the headphone use?

    • Wi-Fi
    • Bluetooth
    • infrared
    • 3G/4G
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: Bluetooth is a wireless technology for data exchange over a short distance. It is suitable for connecting devices with simple tasks, such as headsets, keyboards, mice, and printers. Wi-Fi is suitable for variety of applications with high speed wireless connectivity required or preferred. Infrared requires a direct line of sight between the transmitter and the receiver. 3G/4G are cellular network technologies to manage voice calls and data transmission between clients and service providers.

38. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?​

    • does not require management console software
    • has direct access to server hardware resources
    • best suited for enterprise environments
    • installs directly on hardware

39. A company has a few employees that are designers. The designers do not have the CAD application loaded on their local computer. Instead, the designers use a CAD application hosted by the application developer. Which type of virtualization is the company using?

    • SaaS
    • DaaS
    • IaaS
    • PaaS

40. A network administrator attempted to access the company website and received a “page not found” error. The next day the administrator checked the web server logs and noticed that during the same hour that the site failed to load, there was an unusually large number of requests for the website home page. All of the requests originated from the same IP address. Given this information, what might the network administrator conclude?

    • The web server was turned off and was not able to service requests.
    • It is normal web surfing activity.
    • It is likely that someone attempted a DoS attack.
    • The link to the website does not have enough capacity and needs to be increased.

41. Which three attacks exploit vulnerabilities in software? (Choose three.)

    • pretexting
    • worms
    • phishing
    • Trojan horses
    • vishing
    • viruses

42. What technique is used in social engineering attacks?

    • sending junk email
    • man-in-the-middle
    • phishing
    • buffer overflow

43. A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded file, the hard drive crashes and all information on the computer is lost. What type of attack occurred?

    • denial of service
    • virus
    • worm
    • Trojan horse
      

      Explanation: Viruses are malicious programs that are spread by modifying other programs and files and can cause hard drives to crash and files to be lost.

44. What is the decimal equivalent to binary 11110000?

    • 192
    • 240
    • 248
    • 224

45. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

    • multicast address
    • network address
    • host address
    • broadcast address
      

      Explanation: The /24 shows that the network address is 172.17.4.0. The broadcast address for this network would be 172.17.4.255. Useable host addresses for this network are 172.17.4.1 through 172.17.4.254.

46. Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose three.)

    • 192.168.5.29
    • 172.17.254.4
    • 128.37.255.6
    • 198.168.6.18
    • 172.68.83.35
    • 10.234.2.1
      

      Explanation:  The designated private IP addresses are within the three IP address ranges: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

47. A network security administrator is writing documentation on the firewall requirements for allowing Telnet access to the remote server. Which two pieces of information should be included? (Choose two.)

    • port 20
    • port 23
    • port 22
    • UDP
    • TCP

48. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose two.)

    • HTTPS
    • HTML
    • DHCP
    • HTTP
    • DNS
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS) are two application layer protocols that manage the content requests from clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up Language) is the encoding language that describes the content and display features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP address resolution. DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.

49. Match the port number to the email protocol.

    

50. Which protocol is used by a server that needs to send an email message to another server in order to support successful delivery of the message?

    • SMTP
    • DNS
    • POP3
    • IMAP4

51. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

    • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
    • It provides segmentation at Layer 2.
    • A router connects multiple IP networks.
    • It determines the best path to send packets.
    • It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.
      

      Explanation: Routers connect multiple networks, determine the best path to send packets, and forward packets based on a destination IP address.

52. Which statement describes a major characteristic of a local area network?

    • A LAN is under one administrative control.
    • A LAN is implemented in a corporation to connect all of its offices.
    • A LAN connects remote users to the main corporate office.
    • A LAN can contain up to 100 hosts.

53. A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?

    • The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.
    • The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.
    • The switch is malfunctioning.
    • The DHCP server is disconnected.

54. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

    

    • subnet mask
    • DNS address
    • host IP address
    • default gateway address

55. A law firm uses DHCPv4 to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses for staff workstations. The DHCP policy specifies that the lease period is 7 days. A staff member returns to the office after 2 weeks of vacation. When the employee turns on the workstation, which DHCPv4 message is sent by the workstation to obtain a valid IPv4 address?

    • DHCPACK broadcast message
    • DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
    • DHCPOFFER unicast message
    • DHCPREQUEST unicast message

56. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

    • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
    • both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
    • MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
    • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: When the lease of a dynamically assigned IPv4 address has expired, a workstation will send a DHCPDISCOVER message to start the process of obtaining a valid IP address. Because the workstation does not know the addresses of DHCP servers, it sends the message via broadcast, with destination addresses of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255.

57. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

    • The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
    • The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
    • The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
    • The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

58. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

    • Give the router a host name and domain name.
    • Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
    • Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.
    • Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.
    • Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
      

      Explanation: There are four steps to configure SSH on a Cisco router. First, set the host name and domain name. Second, generate a set of RSA keys to be used for encrypting and decrypting the traffic. Third, create the user IDs and passwords of the users who will be connecting. Lastly, enable SSH on the vty lines on the router. SSH does not need to be set up on any physical interfaces, nor does an external authentication server need to be used. While it is a good idea to configure a banner to display legal information for connecting users, it is not required to enable SSH.​

59. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

    

    Answers Explanation & Hints: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.

60. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

    • MAC
    • IEEE
    • IANA
    • OSI
    • IETF
    • TCP/IP
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP, FTP, and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is the 7 layer model that is used to explain how networking works.

61. Which three layers of the OSI model make up the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

    • presentation
    • transport
    • application
    • network
    • session
    • data link
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

62. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

    • DNS server
    • default gateway
    • source port number
    • source MAC address
    • HTTP server

63. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

    • Stations can transmit at any time.
    • They use CSMA/CA technology.
    • They are collision-free networks.
    • They use CSMA/CD technology.
    • Collisions can exist in the networks.

64. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

    • limited broadcast
    • multicast
    • directed broadcast
    • unicast
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: A directed broadcast is a message sent to all hosts on a specific network. It is useful for sending a broadcast to all hosts on a nonlocal network. A multicast message is a message sent to a selected group of hosts that are part of a subscribing multicast group. A limited broadcast is used for a communication that is limited to the hosts on the local network. A unicast message is a message sent from one host to another.

65. When a computer assembles a frame to be sent over the network, what is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame?

    • 1024 bytes
    • 1518 bytes
    • 128 bytes
    • 64 bytes
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: Ethernet standards define a frame size with a minimum of 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes including fields of destination MAC address, source MAC, Length/Type, data payload, and FCS

66. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

    • application of policies
    • backbone connectivity
    • routing
    • network access
    • high-speed connectivity
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: The main purpose of devices in the access layer is to supply network access to end users. Distribution layer devices provide services such as routing and policy functions. The core layer provides high-speed backbone connectivity.

67. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

    

    

    Answers Explanation & Hints: Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

68. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

    • destination MAC address
    • source IP address
    • destination IP address
    • source MAC address
      

      Explanation: When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.

69. A user is setting up a home wireless network. A global address is to be used in NAT translations for traffic flowing through the wireless router. How is this global address assigned?

    • The host devices will select an unused IP address on the LAN for performing NAT through the wireless router.
    • The default gateway IP address of the LAN device is used as the global address for NAT translations through the wireless router.
    • The network administrator will choose an available IP address from the LAN and configure the global addressing of the wireless router.
    • The wireless router will act as a DHCP client in order to receive global addressing from the ISP.

70. When a LAN is connected to the internet using a wireless router, how do devices on the LAN communicate on the internet using NAT?

    • Each LAN must select a single client device from the wireless router settings that can communicate to the internet via NAT.
    • Only a small group of high priority client devices can be chosen by the wireless router to communicate to the internet using NAT.
    • Each device must wait to receive a token from the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.
    • All devices must share the single public IPv4 address assigned to the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.

71. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

    

    • The SSID is broadcast.
    • MAC address filtering is enabled.
    • WEP encryption is enabled.
    • The wireless channel is automatically selected.
    • A well-known administrator password is set.
      

      Explanation: Default settings on wireless routers often include broadcasting the SSID and using a well-known administrative password. Both of these pose a security risk to wireless networks. WEP encryption and MAC address filtering are not set by default. The automatic selection of the wireless channel poses no security risks.

72. Which security function is provided by a firewall?

    • passively monitors network traffic and logs intrusion attacks for security analysis
    • passively monitors network traffic and automatically blocks intrusion attacks
    • aggregates and correlates threat events, contextual information, and network device performance data
    • allows or blocks traffic based on IP address, port number, or application

73. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
    • when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
      

      Explanation: Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.

74. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

    • when the full IOS cannot be found
    • during a normal boot process
    • when the running configuration directs the router to do this
    • during a file transfer operation

75. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot a simple network problem that seems to be caused by software. Which troubleshooting approach should be used?

    • divide and conquer
    • bottom-up
    • top-down
    • substitution

76. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

    • user EXEC mode
    • privileged EXEC mode
    • setup mode
    • global configuration mode
      

      Explanation: If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it will boot into user EXEC mode. A password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

77. What action does a DNS server take if it does not have an entry for a requested URL?

    • The server checks with another DNS server to see if it has an entry.
    • The server drops the request.
    • The server assigns a temporary IP address to the name and sends this IP address to the client.
    • The server returns a “page not found” response to the client.

78. A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. What is the source port number when sending an email from a mobile device?

    • The source port number is 110.
    • The source port number is dynamically generated.
    • The source port number is 25.
    • The source port number is 143.

79. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

    • to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
    • to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
    • to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS
    • to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup
      

      Explanation: The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in in RAM.

80. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

    • Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
    • Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
    • Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
    • Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two hosts. However, if the message does not reach the destination, there is no way to determine where the problem is located. On the other hand, the traceroute utility ( tracert in Windows) traces the route a message takes from its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way and the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.

81. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

    • fewer security requirements
    • less power consumption
    • improved disaster recovery
    • less equipment
    • less device monitoring
    • less employee technical training

82. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

    • fewer security requirements
    • less power consumption
    • improved disaster recovery
    • less equipment
    • less device monitoring
    • less employee technical training

83. What is a difference between the functions of Cloud computing and virtualization?

    • Cloud computing utilizes data center technology whereas virtualization is not used in data centers.
    • Cloud computing provides services on web-based access whereas virtualization provides services on data access through virtualized
    • Internet connections.
    • Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware whereas virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware.
    • Cloud computing requires hypervisor technology whereas virtualization is a fault tolerance technology.
      

      Explanation: Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware. Virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware. Virtualization is a typical component within cloud computing. Virtualization is also widely used in data centers. Although the implementation of virtualization facilitates an easy server fault tolerance setup, it is not a fault tolerance technology by design. The Internet connection from a data center or service provider needs redundant physical WAN connections to ISPs.​​

84. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

    • to ensure the fastest possible download speed
    • because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
    • because HTTP requires reliable delivery
    • because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: When a host requests a web page, transmission reliability and completeness must be guaranteed. Therefore, HTTP uses TCP as its transport layer protocol.

85. Which two types of devices provide dynamic IPv4 addressing for internal hosts on a local network? (Choose two.)

    • ISP DHCP server
    • PC-based DHCP client
    • wireless router
    • PC-based DHCP server
    • ISP router

86. When designing an IP address scheme, what is a benefit of using DHCP to assign host addresses?

    • A gateway address is not required for hosts on one subnet to communicate with hosts on another subnet.
    • Hosts are permanently assigned an address by the DHCP server so that they are easier to manage
    • Changing the subnetting scheme does not require manually reassigning individual host addresses.
    • Devices on the Internet can easily locate the hosts and send data to them.

87. A technician uses an application to capture packets on the network. One such capture reveals the password that is used by a person in the classroom to initiate a Telnet session with a school network device. What recommendation could the technician make to the person who is using Telnet?

    • If possible, enable the network device to use SSH instead of Telnet.
    • If possible, configure the business firewall to filter port 23.
    • If possible, encrypt the Telnet password on the classroom computer.
    • If possible, use a VPN tunnel from the classroom computer to the network device.

88. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

    • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
    • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
    • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
    • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
      

      Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

89. A technician is tasked with connecting a printer directly to the network and making it accessible to all staff in the general vicinity. What type of network cable is most likely used to connect the printer?

    • RJ-11
    • fiber-optic
    • coaxial
    • twisted-pair

90. What benefit does DHCP provide to a network?

    • DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address.
    • Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable.
    • Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual configuration.
    • Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using DHCP and has static assignments.

91. A medium-sized company uses APs, WLCs, and laptops for employee workstations. An employee reports the inability to connect to the Internet. A technician verifies that other workstations can successfully connect to the Internet. What are two possible reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)

    • A default gateway is improperly configured on the AP.
    • A bad cable exists between the client and the WLC.
    • The workstation is out of range.
    • The AP does not have power.
    • The wireless client is not configured for DHCP.

92. What is the first step that a switch performs during the bootup sequence?

    • Low-level CPU initialization begins.
    • POST is initiated.
    • The default IOS image is loaded.
    • The boot loader is loaded.

93. Which scenario describes a peer-to-peer network?

    • Users access shared files from a file server.
    • A user visits a webpage on the company web site.
    • A user has shared a printer attached to the workstation.
    • Users print documents from a network printer that has a built-in NIC.
      

      Explanation: In a peer-to-peer network there is no centralized or dedicated server. A user computer can be a client to request service from another user computer and a server to share a network resource (such as a printer) to other users.

94. What is the difference between the terms bandwidth and throughput?

    • Bandwidth represents the data transfer rate in a local network and throughput represents the data transfer rate over the Internet.
    • Bandwidth is the capacity of data transfer in a network and throughput is the actual data transfer rate.
    • Bandwidth measures data transfer of web applications and throughput measures data transfer of video applications.
    • Bandwidth is measured with Mb/s and throughput is measured in Kbps.

95. A network engineer working at a community building that provides free WiFi is holding an IT conference tomorrow evening. A previous conference with over 100 attendees just ended less than 24 hours ago and the network engineer is concerned about the availability of dynamic addressing. How will the network engineer ensure that there are enough IP addresses for the attendees arriving at the IT conference tomorrow?

    • The network engineer will create a new pool of IP addresses and provide a new network subnet and router configuration for the conference.
    • The network engineer will manually release each lease created by the conference attendees yesterday and statically assign the incoming devices at the conference.
    • The network engineer will disconnect all devices using an IP address from the DHCP server in preparation for the conference.
    • The network engineer will verify that the DHCP leasing time is set for a couple of hours.

96. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

    • Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
    • Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
    • If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
    • Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.
      

      Answers Explanation & Hints: Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to provide a unique identifier for each conversation. Source port numbers are randomly generated and are used to track different conversations. Destination port numbers identify specific services by using either a default port number for the service or a port number that is assigned manually by a system administrator.

97. A student is sending files from a phone to a computer across a network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for reassembling these messages as they are received on the computer?

    • application
    • transport
    • Internet
    • network access

98. When a wireless router is being configured for the first time, what type of wired connection is used?

    • Ethernet patch cable
    • telephone cable
    • console cable
    • modem cable
      

      Explanation: A straight-through Ethernet cable, or patch cable, is commonly used to connect to a wireless router for initial configuration.

99. Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure as it travels over the air in a wireless network?

    • MAC address filtering
    • encryption
    • authentication
    • traffic filtering
      

      Explanation: Encryption is used to secure plaintext data that would be viewable traveling over a wireless network.

100. Which logical binary operation is used by a network device to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address with a specified subnet mask?

     • AND
     • OR
     • EQUAL
     • NOT

101. Match the type of attack with the description. (Not all options are used.)

     

102. A router receives an incoming packet and cannot determine where to forward it. What will the router do?

     • save it until a usable path is installed
     • send it back to the source host
     • drop it
     • broadcast it to directly attached networks

103. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment was sent by PC1 to the web server via port 80. Because of an unexpected network failure, the data was forwarded by R1 but was not received by R2. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

     

     • The timer on R1 will expire and R1 will resend the segment to R2.​
     • R1 will request that PC1 resend the segment.
     • The web server will not acknowledge this segment. The PC1 timer will expire and PC1 will resend the segment.​
     • R1 forwarded the data to R2 but R2 did not receive it. R2 will send a request to R1 to resend the segment.
       

       Explanation: The TCP protocol works between end devices, not between each device on the network. Routers, switches, etc. do not participate in the packet recovery process. For each TCP segment (or group of segments) sent by a host, there is an acknowledgment. If the sender does not receive an acknowledgment within a period of time, the sender resends the segment.

104. A network technician is extending the network from the main office building over several hundred meters to a new security station. The security station needs a high speed connection to support video surveillance of the main building. What type of cable is best suited to connect the security station to the rest of the main office network?

     • unshielded twisted pair
     • fiber optic
     • shielded twisted pair
     • coax

105. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

     • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
     • random static addresses to improve security
     • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
     • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
       

       Explanation: When monitoring servers, a network administrator needs to be able to quickly identify them. Using a predictable static addressing scheme for these devices makes them easier to identify. Server security, redundancy, and duplication of addresses are not features of an IP addressing scheme.

106. What data representation is used when a computer or network device is processing data?

     • binary
     • readable
     • text
     • inferred

107. Match the client operation to the network service.

     

108. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

     

109. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

     • ROM
     • RAM
     • flash
     • NVRAM

110. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

     • (config)# enable password secret
     • (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
     • (config-line)# password secret
     • (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
     • (config)# service password-encryption
       

       Answers Explanation & Hints: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in configuration files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption command. This command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

111. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

     • ROM
     • NVRAM
     • RAM
     • flash
       

       Answers Explanation & Hints: RAM is volatile memory and will lose all contents if the router or switch is restarted or shutdown.

112. Match the command to the function.

     

113. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

     • They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
     • Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
     • They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
     • They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
       

       Answers Explanation & Hints: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local and remote networks.

114. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 needs to resolve the host name of the web server into an IP address by using DNS. What destination IP address and destination port number will PC1 assign to the DNS query packet?​

     

     • 192.168.10.1 port 53
     • 192.168.20.3 port 80
     • 192.168.20.3 port 53
     • 192.168.20.2 port 80
     • 192.168.20.2 port 53

115. Which statement describes the relationship of a physical network and logical IPv4 addressed networks?

     • All devices connected to a physical network need to belong to the same IPv4 logical network.
     • A physical network can connect multiple devices of different IPv4 logical networks.
     • End devices on different IPv4 logical networks can communicate with each other if they all connect to the same switch.
     • A local physical network supports one IPv4 logical network.

116. A DHCP configured PC boots up. What is the order of the messages that are sent and received by this PC in order to obtain an appropriate IP address?

     • DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK​
     • DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
     • DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
     • DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK​

117. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

     • Empty the browser cache.
     • Defragment the hard disk.
     • Delete unused software.
     • Use antivirus software.
     • Keep software up to date.